Election was before the foundation of the world.It doesn't because the question was "why does God choose". All you did was show what He chooses based on a promise He made to the saved. Election comes after salvation.
Election was before the foundation of the world.It doesn't because the question was "why does God choose". All you did was show what He chooses based on a promise He made to the saved. Election comes after salvation.
David was praying for his son's physical life, and while God did not spare his son, God did reveal to David that his son was saved. Which is the greater? And knowing that salvation is the highest good for anyone, why would you not ask God to intervene? You would ask God to intervene for something that will perish, but not ask God to intervene for another's soul? I'll never understand that line of reasoning. Man's will is more sacrosanct than his soul?
I don't think I'll waste my time with your assessment of what's logical and what's not.
Their works are their sins. Jesus saves His people from their sins. I believe you are making a distinction without a difference.
And here I was thinking it was you who was swallowing camels.That was really twisting it. Ouch!
Why do you think it says?
We are saved by grace -NOT OF WORKS -so nobody can boast?
Did anyone think they could be saved by their sins???????
You really stretched that one out till it snapped.
Please, desist.
I hate seeing some believer make a fool of himself.
Men wish to think that doing good deeds/works will gain them God's acceptance.
Their works will be searched to show them that no work they did would be good enough to save them.
Election was before the foundation of the world.
Election was before the foundation of the world.
And here I was thinking it was you who was swallowing camels.
How does any of that relate to the people who would be known as the nation of Israel and being freed from Egypt have to do with God's purpose for my individual salvation?
Context is everything. Go back and see what the context of the discussion was.
Well, you have a few of the 49 or so times the Hebrew word is used and a few of the 158 or so times the Greek word is used.
The worker in the Text knows there is a lot of work to do in defining and interpreting in context all uses before he decides what you're [very prematurely] deciding. Try Matt9:38 and Mark1:11-12, any anger there? Context, Rufus, context...
In context, I can tell you that some not only do not see anger in Gen3 but compassion from God in such things as clothing Adam and the woman and in foretelling of their and our Savior.
No unbeliever will be condemned by any sin that Jesus already bore the punishment for.
If God accepted Jesus blood for the remission of every sin ever committed, how then can God require payment for sin that has been paid for?
Atoned [Sin] only applies to someone, something that has Repented and Accepted the (Free Gift) offered by God.
Those in Hell can be explained in Romans 1 [(they rejected God)].
First, don't give me orders.
Second, the verse from Deut. was incomplete when given at the time - it serving as a picture of the NT verses that would occur later to complete the doctrine - the Bible was written that way. Contrary to your conclusion, they do pertain to individual salvation, which is why I posted them. You apparently were unable to understand that. Thought you would make the connection - guess I gave you too much credit.
This doesn't answer the question: on what basis does God punish unbelievers if their sins are paid for and He has accepted the payment?In agreement, lrs68.
Cameron143, God does not require "payment for sin that has been paid for". God beseeches all to be reconciled to Him through the Lord Jesus Christ (through Whom God was reconciling the world to Himself).
2 Corinthians 5:19-20 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation. Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God.
The word "reconciling" in 2 Cor 5:19 and the word "reconciled" in 2 Cor 5:20 are translated from the Greek word katallássō which means decisively change, as when two parties reconcile when coming ("changing") to the same position.
2 Cor 5:19 - God (the Party of the first part) established His eternal purpose in eternity past ... and He reconciled Himself to mankind through the death of His Son.
2 Cor 5:20 - The believer (the party of the second part) is reconciled at the time he/she believes, hence the plea "we pray you, in Christ's stead be ye reconciled ". At that point, both parties (God and the believer) came to the same position (both God and the person are reconciled ... i.e. Greek katallássō).
Those who reject God even as He reaches out to them are not reconciled to God ... not because God has not provided all that is necessary for them to be reconciled, but because they reject that which God has provided for them to be reconciled to God.
The Lord Jesus Christ is the reconciliation ... there is no other way.
Faith in the Lord Jesus Christ is reconciliation to God.
If a person rejects the Lord Jesus Christ ... who is the Way, the Truth, the Life ... there is no reconciliation with God because the party of the second part is not in agreement with God (the Party of the first part).
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Yes...it does matter. According to the verse provided it does. And multitudes of like kind.Doesn't matter. If the debt is erased, there is no action to be taken by God. He has already accepted payment. Legally, according to your view, they are no longer under any sanction.
So God remains just by accepting payment for everyone's sins, but then reneges on the deal for some by still punishing them? That doesn't fit any definition of justice I've ever seen.Yes...it does matter. According to the verse provided it does. And multitudes of like kind.
If you CHOOSE to devise a different plan of salvation or write your own version of the Bible, you would not be the first.
Aahhhhh but the Pardon and the Acquittal was NOT accepted. So the court has no choice but to render judgement.If the price asked was met and accepted, there is atonement.
You owe $100. I go and pay your debt. The bank accepts the payment for your debt. Are you still in debt?
Evidently you failed your bar exam.So God remains just by accepting payment for everyone's sins, but then reneges on the deal for some by still punishing them? That doesn't fit any definition of justice I've ever seen.
Someone who is secure in what he believes does not sound hostile and defensive like you just did...
Just in case you did not know that.
God didn't accept Jesus' payment for everyone? This is a new position for you. Glad you are coming around. You just may get there.Aahhhhh but the Pardon and the Acquittal was NOT accepted. So the court has no choice but to render judgement.
Rightly understanding the legal device structure is CRITICAL. It's NOT only about payment of sins. It's also a matter of acquittal predicated upon a legal settlement agreed on by the Trinity.
And we are done here.