Can We Really Exercise Free Will?
- Thread starter LifelongLearner
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Is that what you did when God gifted you with physical life: You chose and yielded to him? Or did God "force" his will upon you and tell you, "You will live whether you want to or not"?
Sometimes, but it is a staple for the Reformed crowd, I mean they are known for this sentiment.
Another bold statement. I'm certain you can't back this one up.
Receipt of some grace (theologically called "common grace" by some) is given to all upon the condition we're alive to receive it and partake of it - even choose to partake of it (like the sun and the plants you've mentioned).
You're making these statements. Let's see you back them up with Scripture. I just asked you whether or not you see the volition of men involved in actively receiving vs. rejecting God's grace for example.
How does this connect to accepting the very particular and specific gift of salvation?
I think it does not.
But it is a gift -- a product of God's common grace to all mankind. So, does mankind have to give the Creator and Sustainer of the Universe their "freewill" permission to make his sun shine or rain to fall upon the earth?
When will you FWers understand that God's will is never contingent upon any of his moral creatures'? The Royal King does whatsoever He pleases in heaven and on this earth. His kingdom isn't a democracy.
And the conclusion YOU reach regarding Deut. 29:4 obliterates the rest of what Moses said including the clearest verse.
What is the point of the rest; why is it even in the Bible?
Which hermeneutical method is more valid?
(I note that you do not propose examining another passage.)
Read Jesus' encounter with Nicodemus someday in John 3. One must be born again to see and enter the kingdom.
You're operating under the assumption that all gifts must consciously be accepted by a freewill act of our own. Is that what happened when Jesus raised Lazarus from the dead: Lazarus consented first?
I already shared what I DID learn (apostasy = total depravity),
but you did not appreciate/learn it.
Answer my question: What purpose does Deut 29:4 serve if minds with no understanding and eyes that are blind and ears that are deaf can function just as well as if the mind did understand, and eyes do see and ears can hear? What you're trying to do is artificially mitigate or even obliterate the obvious tension between v. 4 & 9.
We understand that He has willingly provided His volitional creature - man - to choose to receive or to reject His gracious will for our salvation. And He does what He pleases with both receivers and rejecters.
