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I believe that would be due to a combination of both GOD's and man's decisions.

The bible, that's correct. However, all men can hear the voice of the holy spirit in some way or another. Some listen and learn and are led to Christ; others don't listen/learn and don't find him.

Yes, John 10:9. The other is John 6:44-45

I think predestination is that GOD knows beforehand whose hearts will respond. And then he works with those hearts to hear and respond to his voice. Others he knows will not respond, and they don't, so he lets them go their way.

Possibly, and most likely, because you have a heart tuned to GOD's frequency, so to speak. When he spoke, you listened. Why that is, who knows. Have you ever held a vibrating tuning fork next to one of the same frequency that is not vibrating. The stationary one will start vibrating. That's one...

Some of it is their upbringing; some of it is possibly hereditary (GOD says he visits the iniquities of the fathers on their children up to the 4th generation; Exodus 34:7); some of it is the compounding consequences of bad choices.

You're simply making an assertion with no basis in truth. The book says that all men know the righteous work of GOD because he makes it manifest to them; and that there are those who love the light and come to the light because their works are wrought in GOD, and there are those who hate the...

An unregenerate man is fully able to hear the voice of GOD. He just cannot know or understand the door into life. I clearly heard the voice of GOD before I was saved. That's how I got saved; I recognized that voice in the bible. Once I repented, then I saw the door and entered and was reborn. As...

Because that's what each chooses. GOD gives light to all. Those who love it and respond to it are given more, Those who hate it are blinded by their rejection of it.

Of course we do. Now you're begging the question.

Too bad we don't have an example of Paul referring to the torah as the law. Don't say verse 34 is because that would be circular reasoning.

Genesis 3:16 is not the law of Moses.

But that's not what I said. The fact that Paul doesn't use the law (alone) to refer to anything other than the law of Moses in any other writing is evidence. You can't use verse 34 as evidence because that is the matter under investigation.

OK, let me qualify my initial observation - where the law is used alone without a modifying phrase like of my mind.

I stated my observations, not a conclusion. So no, it's not circular reasoning. It's circular reasoning to say Paul wrote it because It's in a letter that Paul wrote.

For me personally, there is enough doubt about 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 being original that it would be sin for me to be dogmatic about it. Add to that the fact that no one can convincingly answer what the law refers to in verse 34.

I know of no instance in Paul's writings where he uses the words the law to refer to anything other than the law of Moses. When he refers to law in another sense (e.g., Romans 3:27) it's always law.

This is just the self-negation of new gnosticism.

It's because many love the world more than GOD. Whoever loves the world more than GOD, GOD considers his enemy.

Truly, truly I say to you, we speak what we know, and we witness what we have seen, and you do not receive our witness. If I tell you earthly things and you do not believe, how will you believe if I tell you heavenly things? John 3:11-12