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If he died for all mankind, then how do you interpret John 6:36-39?

The inspired scriptures are directed to those who have already been born again to instruct them as to how God wants them to live their lives as they sojourn here in this world. If you keep the scriptures in context, they are, for the most part, letters written to the churches. It would be...

But don't you see that those who are not born again cannot discern the gospel (1 Cor 2:14).

All mankind are born into this world totally depraved by inheriting the sin of Adam. They are dead spiritually, until God, by his sovereign grace quickens them to a new spiritual life (Eph 2:5).

You say that you have read 1 Cor 2:14, but your comments proves that your interpretation of it is false, and will not harmonize with the other scriptures. So, what is your interpretation of 1 Cor 2:14?

Which ones would that be?

Psalms 53:2-3.

Have you read 1 Cor 2:14?

Amen to that.

I think you will find that those who believed Paul's preaching were limited to those who were ordained to eternal life (Acts 13:40).

You are not understanding how, or when, eternal salvation came to those that have it. The promise of eternal salvation was accomplished, by Christ's sacrifice on the cross, for all of those that his Father gave him, which was not all of mankind. (John 6:37-40). Christ's sacrifice was to...

I would stick with the secon case if I were you, because it will harmonize with all of the other scriptures.

No.

Does this comment mean that you are not willing to discuss the scriptures?

You are right, but they all must harmonize.

Those that he loves he punishes. He does not divinely punish all men (Psalms 73:5)

The atonement - John 6:37-40, John 10:26-29.

John 10:26-29, John 6 37-40.

Your theory does not harmonize with (John 6:37-40) (John 10:26-29)