Do the modern translations mistranslate Romans 10:9?

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I think we (believers) can only confess Jesus is Lord when we believe that he died and rose again.

Jesus said that he must go back to heaven so that the Holy Spirit must come to convict the world of it's sin, and that sin is unbelief in him.

We cannot confess that Jesus is Lord until we repent of the sin of unbelief.

Non believers will never confess he is Lord.
 
Here is the thing folks ---

-If we humans would spend as much time actually believing the Word --who is Jesus and putting the Word which is Alive and Active and is Truth into action and practicing and obeying what it says to do --as we do trying to Discredit the Word who is Jesus ---then just maybe we could change some in this world to Join Christ ----instead of sowing Doubts and Fears into the hearts of others -----

Be of One mind with Christ by believing His word and act and behave like we are True Christians instead of trying to push people from Christ ----which is what is being done by people trying to Discredit what the truth of the Word is saying ----by picking out words without researching the words used ----




I say -----Take some truth from NightTwister and BELIEVE ---as they all Have to say the Same message


All Bibles have to give the Same message as if they didn't then they are saying God is a Liar -----

Just because a word in the scripture isn't the same in all scriptures they all need to give the same message ---

God has given very Harsh and Dire warnings --- consequences--- for anybody adding or taking away from His word ----so when the Bible is Translated from the Hebrew or Greek they have to make sure it puts out the same message as all others do ---or they are in big DO_DO when they pass from this world -----


Revelation 22:18-19 ESV
I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book:

if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues described in this book, and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his share in the tree of life and in the holy city, which are described in this book.


Deuteronomy 4:2 ESV
You shall not add to the word that I command you, nor take from it, that you may keep the commandments of the Lord your God that I command you.


Proverbs 30:5-6 ESV
Every word of God proves true; he is a shield to those who take refuge in him. Do not add to his words, lest he rebuke you and you be found a liar.

Deuteronomy 12:32 ESV
“Everything that I command you, you shall be careful to do. You shall not add to it or take from it.

So -----God Help the person who Adds or Subtracts Words from God's truth ---as God will find that person to be a Liar -----you will be bombarded with plagues ---and your name will be blotted out of the Book of Life --and you know where that leads ------

With your premise, all versions do not say the same thing. Some even contain different truths and different words. For instance, there are total verses missing from the modern versions that the KJV contain. Either the modern versions take away from God's word, or the KJV adds to God's word. Therefore, the modern versions are to be rebukes or the KJV. Which is it?
 
The KJV's "that if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus" meaning if you confess with your mouth Jesus is Lord does not come naturally to me at all. I honestly do not see that meaning in the words naturally, and I wouldn't have thought those words meant that unless I saw the modern translations. On their own I would have always thought they meant to talk about Jesus, which is what those words naturally mean to me. I suppose they might all say the same thing, I just find it really hard to grasp and it leaves me confused about how the modern translations are coming to those words when it seems a direct translation of the Greek renders it in the way which the KJV is written which actually reads as a different statement if you are looking at it that way.

If it's helpful, I actually think this is a very important if not crucial point about our Faith and the Gospel.

Read 1Cor3:11 where Paul says the only foundation is Jesus Christ - really Jesus = Christ.

Go back in Paul's missionary travels to Act18:5 where Paul was focused in testifying "the Christ Jesus" - the Christ = Jesus.

Go back to Acts13:16-41 and read Paul's full evangelism message to both Jews and Gentiles. He's making it vitally clear who Jesus is. In Act13:33 note Paul's referencing Psalm2. Go there and read what it says about the LORD's ("YHWH") Anointed ("Christ"). Read how He is also YHWH's King and will inherit the earth and all kings best kiss the "Son" lest He be angry. Realize when reading this Psalm how it can be difficult to distinguish if YHWH is always who we would call the Father or also the Son.

There's a lot to this but acknowledging/confessing Lord = Jesus is vital to us. Paul and others will constantly tie Jesus = Lord = Christ together. It's vital that we know who and what "Christ" means (Psalm2 tells us quite a bit about this title of authority). "Lord" is not only tied to YHWH via the Septuagint, but it was also a title for Roman emperors. All of this is tied to acknowledging that the Lord Jesus Christ is the ultimate authority - the KING of kings.

This is what we are believing. Jesus = Christ is foundational. Also, when Paul quotes Moses in Rom10, he's tapping into language that says this is not difficult to understand and back in that section of Deuteronomy Moses basically instructs Israel to put God's instruction into the hearts and mouths of the people - this is idiomatic essentially meaning to teach it until they can speak it - if they can explain it they understand it.

Learn - understand - know - believe who and what Jesus is - confess (really means to speak the same) it - tell others. Also included is to live it.
 
Yeah... I checked another translator and it gave me this:

that if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

It seems I might have made an issue out of nothing, sorry to anybody who read the thread.
There's no harm in checking. We are, after all, instructed to "test everything". That includes our method and pre-existing biases. :)
 
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With your premise, all versions do not say the same thing. Some even contain different truths and different words. For instance, there are total verses missing from the modern versions that the KJV contain. Either the modern versions take away from God's word, or the KJV adds to God's word. Therefore, the modern versions are to be rebukes or the KJV. Which is it?

Actually it gets worse than just that. There are at least four different collections of books that are called "the Holy Bible" by different groups that claim to be Christian. The smallest such collection is the Protestant Bible. In the 1500's what we call the "apocrypha" was considered for inclusion in the Protestant bible, but was decided against due to a very short passage, so the Roman Catholics decided to include it as the Protestants were wrong. But it was still included in the Protestant bibles until 1804 in England and much of Europe, in bible printed in the USA it stayed until much later in the bibles.

So. were Protestants correct in the early 1500's, until the 1800's of only after the 1800's. let alone with regards to differing modern translations or is some other Christian group correct, maybe the RCC or maybe one of the other two less known ones. Are there 150 Psalms of 155? Is the Book of Jubilees scripture or not, it is better represented in the Dead Sea Scrolls than some biblical OT books.
 
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Read the account of the conversion of the Ethiopian eunuch in Acts 8. He confessed with his mouth his belief in the Lord in response to Philip's preaching and then was immediately baptized.
 
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As the bother very wisely said :) all the same. To think about this and all man has added to even get saved.. what in the world was Christ talking about when He said "whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life. He does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life." Ooooh the will of is? ", This is the work of God, that ye believe on him whom he hath sent.
 
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With your premise, all versions do not say the same thing. Some even contain different truths and different words. For instance, there are total verses missing from the modern versions that the KJV contain. Either the modern versions take away from God's word, or the KJV adds to God's word. Therefore, the modern versions are to be rebukes or the KJV. Which is it?

Well I think if you do a little research you will find an explanation and see that all is well and that all Bibles have to present the Same message ---or the whole Bible is just a farce and not believable -----


https://www.gotquestions.org/missing-verses.html

If you compare the King James and New King James Versions with the newer translations (e.g., the New International Version, English Standard Version, Christian Standard Bible, New Living Translation, etc.), you will notice that several verses are entirely missing from the newer translations. Examples of missing verses and passages are John 5:4, Acts 8:37, and 1 John 5:7. Another example is Mark 16:9–20, although that passage is always placed in the text or in footnotes. In addition to the few missing verses, there are numerous words and phrases that are missing from newer translations. Why do these translations omit these verses, phrases, and words?
Are the newer translations taking verses out of the Bible, as some claim?


No, the newer translations are not removing verses from the Bible. Rather, the newer translations are attempting to accurately present what the biblical writers originally wrote, and that means leaving out anything that was not part of the original text. Any content “missing” in newer translations is believed by most scholars to not have been in the Bible to begin with.

The KJV was translated in AD 1611; the New Testament translators of the KJV used a Greek manuscript called the Textus Receptus. Since that time, many biblical manuscripts have been discovered that predate the Textus Receptus, and these older manuscripts, in theory, are likely to be more accurate. In their research, Bible scholars and textual critics have discovered some differences between the Textus Receptus and the older manuscripts. It seems that, over the course of 1,500 years, some words, phrases, and even sentences were added to the Bible, either intentionally or accidentally. The “missing verses” mentioned above are simply not found in some of the oldest and most reliable manuscripts.

So, the newer translations remove these verses or place them in footnotes or in brackets because the translators believe they do not truly belong in the Bible.

For example, John 5:4 is included in the KJV, but in the NKJV the verse has a footnote attached explaining that it is not found in many Greek texts; the NASB includes the verse in brackets; the NIV places the verse in a footnote, so John 5:4 is “missing” in the actual text. The disputed portion is this: “waiting for the moving of the waters; for an angel of the Lord went down at certain seasons into the pool and stirred up the water; whoever then first, after the stirring up of the water, stepped in was made well from whatever disease with which he was afflicted” (John 5:3–4, NASB).

Here is a possible explanation of how John 5:4 ended up in the Bible: a scribe is writing out John 5, in which Jesus visits the pool of Bethesda: “Here a great number of disabled people used to lie—the blind, the lame, the paralyzed. One who was there had been an invalid for thirty-eight years” (John 5:3–5). But then the scribe gets to verse 7, as Jesus speaks to the man about his desire to be healed, and the man says, “I have no one to help me into the pool when the water is stirred” (verse 7). The scribe considers the man’s reference to “stirred” water as a source of possible confusion, as John does not expound on it. So the scribe writes a quick note in the margin to explain why the invalid was waiting for “stirred” water—an angel came down at certain times to make something special happen. The scribe’s notation was an attempt to aid the reader in understanding Scripture. But then, as more and more copies of that manuscript were made, the scribe’s marginal note was transferred from the margin and inserted into the actual text as part of the passage. It may be that the later copyist misconstrued the intention of the marginal note: instead of being a commentary of sorts, the note was seen as the scribe’s attempt to correct a mistake, inserting a verse he had accidentally left out. Thus, what the scribe meant as a helpful gloss resulted in John 5 expanding by one verse.

It is important to remember that the verses in question are of minor significance. None of them change in any way the crucial themes of the Bible, nor do they have any impact on the Bible’s doctrines—Jesus’ death and resurrection; Christ’s being the only way of salvation; and the doctrines of heaven and hell, sin and redemption, and the nature and character of God. These doctrines are preserved intact through the work of the Holy Spirit, who safeguards the Word of God for all generations.

It is not a matter of the newer translations missing verses, and it is not a matter of the KJV translators adding to the Bible.

It is a matter of determining, through careful research and textual science, what content was most likely part of the original manuscripts of the Bible.
 
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The real issue involving understanding the difference between translations come down to options within the Greek language. Whenever you have multiple words that can represent a word from a different language it's basically the person putting the Bible together decision.

That ultimately comes down to what is the motive?
 
They all say the same thing.
No not exactly , what does the Ethiopian say that confirms to Philip that he is ready to b baptised ?
Acts chapter 8 verse 37 + 38 .
The Bible states that the Ethiopians confession was this : I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God .
It doesn't get much plainer than that does it ? Verse 38 , in response to these exact words , Philip baptises the Ethiopian . Where is the confusion ? Im not confused .
 
No not exactly , what does the Ethiopian say that confirms to Philip that he is ready to b baptised ?
Acts chapter 8 verse 37 + 38 .
The Bible states that the Ethiopians confession was this : I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God .
It doesn't get much plainer than that does it ? Verse 38 , in response to these exact words , Philip baptises the Ethiopian . Where is the confusion ? Im not confused .
I have no idea what you're talking about.
 
The real issue involving understanding the difference between translations come down to options within the Greek language. Whenever you have multiple words that can represent a word from a different language it's basically the person putting the Bible together decision.

That ultimately comes down to what is the motive?

Yes, motive is the deciding factor. All translations are interpretations by someone who has their own idea of what scripture should say.
 
Well I think if you do a little research you will find an explanation and see that all is well and that all Bibles have to present the Same message ---or the whole Bible is just a farce and not believable -----


https://www.gotquestions.org/missing-verses.html

If you compare the King James and New King James Versions with the newer translations (e.g., the New International Version, English Standard Version, Christian Standard Bible, New Living Translation, etc.)


The New King James Version was first published in 1982, four years after the NIV.
 
Romans 10:9 English Standard Version
9 because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Romans 10:9 New International Version
9 If you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

But this is what the King James Version says:

Romans 10:9 King James Version
9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

"Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" is not the same thing as confessing Jesus is Lord depending on how you see the language. Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus could mean telling people that Jesus died for our sins. When I take "9 ὅτι ἐὰν ὁμολογήσῃς ἐν τῷ στόματί σου κύριον Ἰησοῦν, καὶ πιστεύσῃς ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ σου ὅτι ὁ θεὸς αὐτὸν ἤγειρεν ἐκ νεκρῶν, σωθήσῃ·" (which is the original Greek I believe, from: https://www.greekbible.com/romans/10/9) and put it into Google Translate I get: "9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved:". Please excuse my language (I don't know how else to put it), but this leads me to believe that the modern translations are bastardizing the language that is clear in the Greek that the KJV uses and rendering it in a way that is not honest to the Greek. I don't know if I'm being clear, but "confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" lends itself to telling people that Jesus died for our sins much more than it does to confess Jesus is Lord, at least within my understanding of the English language. I honestly would never associate the language "Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" with confessing Jesus is Lord if it weren't for the modern translations of Romans 10:9 and what the KJV says. This is not naturally what those words mean to me.

Yes, "you" should be "thou", "confess" should be "shalt confess", "believe" should be "shalt believe", "your" should be "thine",
"raised" should be "hath raised", and "will be" should be "shalt be". The modern translations are bastardizing the King James language.
For shame!
 
It is important to remember that the verses in question are of minor significance. None of them change in any way the crucial themes of the Bible, nor do they have any impact on the Bible’s doctrines

What about the doctrine not to add to or take away from God's word? What about the most important doctrine that that every word of God is true and we are to live by every word?