Do the modern translations mistranslate Romans 10:9?

[LeeLoving]

Romans 10:9 English Standard Version
9 because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Romans 10:9 New International Version
9 If you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

But this is what the King James Version says:

Romans 10:9 King James Version
9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

"Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" is not the same thing as confessing Jesus is Lord depending on how you see the language. Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus could mean telling people that Jesus died for our sins. When I take "9 ὅτι ἐὰν ὁμολογήσῃς ἐν τῷ στόματί σου κύριον Ἰησοῦν, καὶ πιστεύσῃς ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ σου ὅτι ὁ θεὸς αὐτὸν ἤγειρεν ἐκ νεκρῶν, σωθήσῃ·" (which is the original Greek I believe, from: https://www.greekbible.com/romans/10/9) and put it into Google Translate I get: "9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved:". Please excuse my language (I don't know how else to put it), but this leads me to believe that the modern translations are bastardizing the language that is clear in the Greek that the KJV uses and rendering it in a way that is not honest to the Greek. I don't know if I'm being clear, but "confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" lends itself to telling people that Jesus died for our sins much more than it does to confess Jesus is Lord, at least within my understanding of the English language. I honestly would never associate the language "Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" with confessing Jesus is Lord if it weren't for the modern translations of Romans 10:9 and what the KJV says. This is not naturally what those words mean to me.

 

[LeeLoving]

Ah, the original text for Romans 10:9 seems to be lost but according to Google "Papyrus 46" (approximately 175-225 AD) reads as: ὅτι ἐὰν ὁμολογήσῃς ἐν τῷ στόματί σου κύριον Ἰησοῦν, καὶ πιστεύσῃς ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ σου ὅτι ὁ θεὸς αὐτὸν ἤγειρεν ἐκ νεκρῶν, σωθήσῃ·

Which translates to:
That if you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus, and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

I don't understand how this means "that if you confess Jesus is Lord". Like I wrote before "confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" lends itself to talking about him dying for our sins. Maybe other people read this differently though.

 

[John146]

Romans 10:9 English Standard Version
9 because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Romans 10:9 New International Version
9 If you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

But this is what the King James Version says:

Romans 10:9 King James Version
9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

"Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" is not the same thing as confessing Jesus is Lord depending on how you see the language. Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus could mean telling people that Jesus died for our sins. When I take "9 ὅτι ἐὰν ὁμολογήσῃς ἐν τῷ στόματί σου κύριον Ἰησοῦν, καὶ πιστεύσῃς ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ σου ὅτι ὁ θεὸς αὐτὸν ἤγειρεν ἐκ νεκρῶν, σωθήσῃ·" (which is the original Greek I believe, from: https://www.greekbible.com/romans/10/9) and put it into Google Translate I get: "9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved:". Please excuse my language (I don't know how else to put it), but this leads me to believe that the modern translations are bastardizing the language that is clear in the Greek that the KJV uses and rendering it in a way that is not honest to the Greek. I don't know if I'm being clear, but "confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" lends itself to telling people that Jesus died for our sins much more than it does to confess Jesus is Lord, at least within my understanding of the English language. I honestly would never associate the language "Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" with confessing Jesus is Lord if it weren't for the modern translations of Romans 10:9 and what the KJV says. This is not naturally what those words mean to me.

Only saved believers can confess Jesus is Lord. Confessing the Lord Jesus is confessing his testimony, how he died for sins, was buried, and rose again the third day.

 

[PennEd]

"Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" is not the same thing as confessing Jesus is Lord

Yes it is.

 

[tablet123]

But it would only matter if it is someone not knowing the Bible but only that one scripture and they think Jesus is Lord so I am saved.

But why would they believe that with no Bible to persuade them it is true.

Most likely all people would know the Bible and what it claims about Jesus to know to confess Jesus is Lord means Him being Savior.

What person is going to open the Bible at a random spot and read that one scripture and nothing else or someone preach that one scripture to them and say confess Jesus is Lord and that is all they know and they will say I believe Jesus is Lord so I am saved.

They know about Jesus before they confess Him.

What preacher will say believe Jesus is Lord but not say to believe Him being Savior.

What person will read only that one scripture and not know the Bible says Jesus is Savior.

Rom 10:9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

Even if they misunderstand the scripture and they think it is only about Jesus' authority they would still know He is Savior which they must confess.

But still if the correct translation is confess the Lord Jesus do not change it.

Especially if it is fine with it being Lord Jesus.

Oh this is a hard one for people to understand Lord Jesus we must change it to Jesus is Lord to give them a more modern language.

Oh this is a hard one for people to understand boggling their mind to the uttermost, and confusing them, thou shalt not steal so we must change it to you shall not steal to give them a more modern language.

Act 8:35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and preached unto him Jesus.
Act 8:36 And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized?
Acts 8:37: "And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God."

Philip said believe on Jesus which the eunuch said I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God."

But the Eunuch knew that he had to confess Jesus as Savior.

So confess Jesus is Lord it would seem like they would know to confess Him as Savior.

 

[memberofthebride]

Are we to understand,, that a person the just became aware of Jesus Christ, a person that knows zip of the Word of God, can simply utter some words and they are saved?? Not only not logical but not scriptural.

A person that been called by the Father, FACT - unless the Father calls a person to Christ they can not come to Christ. In other words, it is not up to the person, it is only the Father that calls a person to follow Christ. It is not up to the individual. I can quote the scripture stating the above.

Once called, that person must Repent of sinning against the Father, must be baptized into the Death and Resurrection of Christ and by the laying on of hands receive the Father's Spirit in them --- then and only then are they in the life long "process of salvation". Salvation in not a "once and done" thing.

One or two scriptures do not make doctrine, it is only by line upon line, precept upon precept that the Truth is established.

Please do not forget or ignore, each "translation" is according to the doctrines of those doing the translating.

Point: in the KJV, the word Passover is rendered easter.

here is an interesting piece I found on the net.

“During the Middle Ages, Christian translators created a way to make the English Bible ---- reflect -- their belief--- ---that the Holy Ghost was not the Holy Spirit.---

These theologians -- coined the phrase--- "Holy Ghost" to designate the Third Person of the Trinity. In contrast, they used "Holy Spirit" to refer to the Spirit of God or Spirit of the LORD encountered by the Hebrews and Jews in the Old Testament.

Then, in the 16th century, Bible printers reinforced this distinction by introducing capital and small letters. In the OT they used "spirit" and "holy spirit." In the NT they printed "Spirit" and "Holy Ghost," but with subtle distinctions.

These translation and printing differences do not exist in the Bible itself, in either Hebrew or Greek.

They are invented theological biases – imported - into the (English) Bible.

They provided both verbal and visual validation for the already existing “conviction” --- that Christianity --- must be separated from its Hebraic/Jewish foundations."

Question; are these folks saying we must forget Jesus is a Hebrew, of the Tribe of Judah? as were the 12 Apostles? and all kept and taught the Torah?

 

[memberofthebride]

Are we to understand,, that a person the just became aware of Jesus Christ, a person that knows zip of the Word of God, can simply utter some words and they are saved?? Not only not logical but not scriptural.

A person that been called by the Father, FACT - unless the Father calls a person to Christ they can not come to Christ. In other words, it is not up to the person, it is only the Father that calls a person to follow Christ. It is not up to the individual. I can quote the scripture stating the above.

Once called, that person must Repent of sinning against the Father, must be baptized into the Death and Resurrection of Christ and by the laying on of hands receive the Father's Spirit in them --- then and only then are they in the life long "process of salvation". Salvation in not a "once and done" thing.

One or two scriptures do not make doctrine, it is only by line upon line, precept upon precept that the Truth is established.

Please do not forget or ignore, each "translation" is according to the doctrines of those doing the translating.

Point: in the KJV, the word Passover is rendered easter.

here is an interesting piece I found on the net.

“During the Middle Ages, Christian translators created a way to make the English Bible ---- reflect -- their belief--- ---that the Holy Ghost was not the Holy Spirit.---

These theologians -- coined the phrase--- "Holy Ghost" to designate the Third Person of the Trinity. In contrast, they used "Holy Spirit" to refer to the Spirit of God or Spirit of the LORD encountered by the Hebrews and Jews in the Old Testament.

Then, in the 16th century, Bible printers reinforced this distinction by introducing capital and small letters. In the OT they used "spirit" and "holy spirit." In the NT they printed "Spirit" and "Holy Ghost," but with subtle distinctions.

These translation and printing differences do not exist in the Bible itself, in either Hebrew or Greek.

They are invented theological biases – imported - into the (English) Bible.

They provided both verbal and visual validation for the already existing “conviction” --- that Christianity --- must be separated from its Hebraic/Jewish foundations."

Question; are these folks saying we must forget Jesus is a Hebrew, of the Tribe of Judah? as were the 12 Apostles? and all kept and taught the Torah?

I am going to add a scripture most have never been introduced to; Spoken by our Savior.

Matthew 23

1 Then spake Jesus to the multitude, and to his disciples,

2 Saying, The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat:

The Pharisees and the Torah lawyers are in the position of Moses

3 All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not.

Jesus Christ is explaining to His Disciples they are to follow Torah Law,, as taught by the Priest and lawyers, BUT do not follow them as they themselves do not obey the Torah, they teach it but do not do IT.

Can you understand why this is never included in sermons?

 

[Dino246]

Romans 10:9 English Standard Version
9 because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Romans 10:9 New International Version
9 If you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

But this is what the King James Version says:

Romans 10:9 King James Version
9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

"Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" is not the same thing as confessing Jesus is Lord depending on how you see the language. Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus could mean telling people that Jesus died for our sins. When I take "9 ὅτι ἐὰν ὁμολογήσῃς ἐν τῷ στόματί σου κύριον Ἰησοῦν, καὶ πιστεύσῃς ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ σου ὅτι ὁ θεὸς αὐτὸν ἤγειρεν ἐκ νεκρῶν, σωθήσῃ·" (which is the original Greek I believe, from: https://www.greekbible.com/romans/10/9) and put it into Google Translate I get: "9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved:". Please excuse my language (I don't know how else to put it), but this leads me to believe that the modern translations are bastardizing the language that is clear in the Greek that the KJV uses and rendering it in a way that is not honest to the Greek. I don't know if I'm being clear, but "confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" lends itself to telling people that Jesus died for our sins much more than it does to confess Jesus is Lord, at least within my understanding of the English language. I honestly would never associate the language "Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" with confessing Jesus is Lord if it weren't for the modern translations of Romans 10:9 and what the KJV says. This is not naturally what those words mean to me.

It’s rather suspicious that your translator gives you the KJV words precisely. Because of that, I think the problem is version bias, not inaccuracy.

 

[memberofthebride]

It’s rather suspicious that your translator gives you the KJV words precisely. Because of that, I think the problem is version bias, not inaccuracy.

Leeloving Fact: never make doctrine by one or two scriptures -- It is by EVERY WORD a Truth is know.

 

[NewLifeInChrist]

Romans 10:9 English Standard Version
9 because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Romans 10:9 New International Version
9 If you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

But this is what the King James Version says:

Romans 10:9 King James Version
9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

"Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" is not the same thing as confessing Jesus is Lord depending on how you see the language. Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus could mean telling people that Jesus died for our sins. When I take "9 ὅτι ἐὰν ὁμολογήσῃς ἐν τῷ στόματί σου κύριον Ἰησοῦν, καὶ πιστεύσῃς ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ σου ὅτι ὁ θεὸς αὐτὸν ἤγειρεν ἐκ νεκρῶν, σωθήσῃ·" (which is the original Greek I believe, from: https://www.greekbible.com/romans/10/9) and put it into Google Translate I get: "9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved:". Please excuse my language (I don't know how else to put it), but this leads me to believe that the modern translations are bastardizing the language that is clear in the Greek that the KJV uses and rendering it in a way that is not honest to the Greek. I don't know if I'm being clear, but "confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" lends itself to telling people that Jesus died for our sins much more than it does to confess Jesus is Lord, at least within my understanding of the English language. I honestly would never associate the language "Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" with confessing Jesus is Lord if it weren't for the modern translations of Romans 10:9 and what the KJV says. This is not naturally what those words mean to me.

Interesting question. Here is what AT Robertson said about it...

Romans 10:9​

​

If thou shalt confess (ἐαν ὁμολογησῃς [ean homologēsēis]). Third class condition (ἐαν [ean] and first aorist active subjunctive of ὁμολογεω [homologeō]). With thy mouth Jesus as Lord (ἐν τῳ στοματι σου Κυριον Ἰησουν [en tōi stomati sou Kurion Iēsoun]). This is the reading of nearly all the MSS. But B 71 Clem of Alex. read το ρημα ἐν τῳ στοματι σου ὁτι Κυριος Ἰησους [to rēma en tōi stomati sou hoti Kurios Iēsous] (the word in thy mouth that Jesus is Lord). The idea is the same, the confession of Jesus as Lord as in 1 Cor. 12:3; Phil. 2:11. No Jew would do this who had not really trusted Christ, for Κυριος [Kurios] in the LXX is used of God. No Gentile would do it who had not ceased worshipping the emperor as Κυριος [Kurios]. The word Κυριος [Kurios] was and is the touchstone of faith. And shalt believe (και πιστευσῃς [kai pisteusēis]). Same construction. Faith precedes confession, of course. [Robertson, A. T. (1933). Word Pictures in the New Testament (Ro 10:9). Broadman Press.]​

Note that he says almost all manuscripts read as you have suggested except one (B 71) adds the word ὁτι (translated "that") in front of Lord Jesus. This is probably where the translators got the idea for their tranlslations. Robertson translates it "with thy mouth Jesus as Lord" similar to NASB's rendering, "confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord". At least NASB's rendering honestly puts "as" in italics, letting the readers know it is implied but not actually in the Greek text.

 

[Roughsoul1991]

Ah, the original text for Romans 10:9 seems to be lost but according to Google "Papyrus 46" (approximately 175-225 AD) reads as: ὅτι ἐὰν ὁμολογήσῃς ἐν τῷ στόματί σου κύριον Ἰησοῦν, καὶ πιστεύσῃς ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ σου ὅτι ὁ θεὸς αὐτὸν ἤγειρεν ἐκ νεκρῶν, σωθήσῃ·

Which translates to:
That if you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus, and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

I don't understand how this means "that if you confess Jesus is Lord". Like I wrote before "confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" lends itself to talking about him dying for our sins. Maybe other people read this differently though.

Translation does matter but in this case idk how one could read either translation and come away with a false interpretation. Typically context will make translations clear anyways. Very rarely I'll come across a text where the English translation is so far off from the Greek that I must highlight the word being used.

 

[NightTwister]

They all say the same thing.

 

[rewriter]

Romans 10:9 English Standard Version
9 because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Romans 10:9 New International Version
9 If you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

But this is what the King James Version says:

Romans 10:9 King James Version
9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

"Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" is not the same thing as confessing Jesus is Lord depending on how you see the language. Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus could mean telling people that Jesus died for our sins. When I take "9 ὅτι ἐὰν ὁμολογήσῃς ἐν τῷ στόματί σου κύριον Ἰησοῦν, καὶ πιστεύσῃς ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ σου ὅτι ὁ θεὸς αὐτὸν ἤγειρεν ἐκ νεκρῶν, σωθήσῃ·" (which is the original Greek I believe, from: https://www.greekbible.com/romans/10/9) and put it into Google Translate I get: "9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved:". Please excuse my language (I don't know how else to put it), but this leads me to believe that the modern translations are bastardizing the language that is clear in the Greek that the KJV uses and rendering it in a way that is not honest to the Greek. I don't know if I'm being clear, but "confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" lends itself to telling people that Jesus died for our sins much more than it does to confess Jesus is Lord, at least within my understanding of the English language. I honestly would never associate the language "Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" with confessing Jesus is Lord if it weren't for the modern translations of Romans 10:9 and what the KJV says. This is not naturally what those words mean to me.

Translating from biblical Greek is always a problem. There is very little punctuation. When it was originally written, the letter was assigned to a person to both deliver it and read it to the recipient, and that person was instructed on where to place the emphasis, that is the intended punctuation. which can make all the difference is how it is understood. There is one verse in Colossians that can be translated in six different ways depending on just where one places the punctuation, and one of those ways implies that Satan will be saved at the end. But also remember that much of the New Testament was written when Christianity was under attack from the worldly powers, so some things had to be delicately said to reduce problems from outside the community. Remember, the fish symbol was originally a means of identifying fellow believers with whom one could be more open in what was said. How much has been forgotten or replaced with "safe" interpretations since then is an open question

As for relying on the KJV, one needs to remember that it was not written with an eye towards the best possible translation, but with an eye to sounding pleasant.

 

[studentoftheword]

Here is the thing folks ---

-If we humans would spend as much time actually believing the Word --who is Jesus and putting the Word which is Alive and Active and is Truth into action and practicing and obeying what it says to do --as we do trying to Discredit the Word who is Jesus ---then just maybe we could change some in this world to Join Christ ----instead of sowing Doubts and Fears into the hearts of others -----

Be of One mind with Christ by believing His word and act and behave like we are True Christians instead of trying to push people from Christ ----which is what is being done by people trying to Discredit what the truth of the Word is saying ----by picking out words without researching the words used ----

They all say the same thing.

I say -----Take some truth from NightTwister and BELIEVE ---as they all Have to say the Same message


All Bibles have to give the Same message as if they didn't then they are saying God is a Liar -----

Just because a word in the scripture isn't the same in all scriptures they all need to give the same message ---

God has given very Harsh and Dire warnings --- consequences--- for anybody adding or taking away from His word ----so when the Bible is Translated from the Hebrew or Greek they have to make sure it puts out the same message as all others do ---or they are in big DO_DO when they pass from this world -----


Revelation 22:18-19 ESV
I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book:

if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues described in this book, and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his share in the tree of life and in the holy city, which are described in this book.


Deuteronomy 4:2 ESV
You shall not add to the word that I command you, nor take from it, that you may keep the commandments of the Lord your God that I command you.


Proverbs 30:5-6 ESV
Every word of God proves true; he is a shield to those who take refuge in him. Do not add to his words, lest he rebuke you and you be found a liar.

Deuteronomy 12:32 ESV
“Everything that I command you, you shall be careful to do. You shall not add to it or take from it.

So -----God Help the person who Adds or Subtracts Words from God's truth ---as God will find that person to be a Liar -----you will be bombarded with plagues ---and your name will be blotted out of the Book of Life --and you know where that leads ------

 

[homwardbound]

Romans 10:9 English Standard Version
9 because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Romans 10:9 New International Version
9 If you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

But this is what the King James Version says:

Romans 10:9 King James Version
9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

"Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" is not the same thing as confessing Jesus is Lord depending on how you see the language. Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus could mean telling people that Jesus died for our sins. When I take "9 ὅτι ἐὰν ὁμολογήσῃς ἐν τῷ στόματί σου κύριον Ἰησοῦν, καὶ πιστεύσῃς ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ σου ὅτι ὁ θεὸς αὐτὸν ἤγειρεν ἐκ νεκρῶν, σωθήσῃ·" (which is the original Greek I believe, from: https://www.greekbible.com/romans/10/9) and put it into Google Translate I get: "9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved:". Please excuse my language (I don't know how else to put it), but this leads me to believe that the modern translations are bastardizing the language that is clear in the Greek that the KJV uses and rendering it in a way that is not honest to the Greek. I don't know if I'm being clear, but "confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" lends itself to telling people that Jesus died for our sins much more than it does to confess Jesus is Lord, at least within my understanding of the English language. I honestly would never associate the language "Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" with confessing Jesus is Lord if it weren't for the modern translations of Romans 10:9 and what the KJV says. This is not naturally what those words mean to me.

Noting this: from each translation all share "If one believes in their Heart. you will be saved, That is the Promise
Thank you, And only God for sure knows who do sincerely believe God. It is not a show and tell feature!
Either one does believe God sincerely or not. And it matters not to me whether another believes or not. I am content in Jesus preached, whether another is sincere or not, I trust God to know and do as God does in love and mercy to all, not under Law in love get it, thanks Hebrews 8:1-4

 

[studier]

Romans 10:9 English Standard Version
9 because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Romans 10:9 New International Version
9 If you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

But this is what the King James Version says:

Romans 10:9 King James Version
9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

"Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" is not the same thing as confessing Jesus is Lord depending on how you see the language. Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus could mean telling people that Jesus died for our sins. When I take "9 ὅτι ἐὰν ὁμολογήσῃς ἐν τῷ στόματί σου κύριον Ἰησοῦν, καὶ πιστεύσῃς ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ σου ὅτι ὁ θεὸς αὐτὸν ἤγειρεν ἐκ νεκρῶν, σωθήσῃ·" (which is the original Greek I believe, from: https://www.greekbible.com/romans/10/9) and put it into Google Translate I get: "9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved:". Please excuse my language (I don't know how else to put it), but this leads me to believe that the modern translations are bastardizing the language that is clear in the Greek that the KJV uses and rendering it in a way that is not honest to the Greek. I don't know if I'm being clear, but "confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" lends itself to telling people that Jesus died for our sins much more than it does to confess Jesus is Lord, at least within my understanding of the English language. I honestly would never associate the language "Confessing with your mouth the Lord Jesus" with confessing Jesus is Lord if it weren't for the modern translations of Romans 10:9 and what the KJV says. This is not naturally what those words mean to me.

There are issues with all English translations - some more than others.

If Google Translate gave you that translation, then it really did not translate, but grabbed the KJV and gave it to you as translation.

Are you familiar with Greek to English Interlinears that show us the Greek and the English so we can see the basics of what translators are doing? Here's one: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/romans/10-9.htm

The words you seem most concerned with very literally from the Greek say: "that if you confess/acknowledge in the mouth of you 'Lord Jesus"...

• The reason English translations are inserting "is" between Lord and Jesus is simply to make it smoother for us to read in English. The Greek is very literally equating Lord = Jesus.
  • This is the point here - Lord = Jesus - Lord [is] Jesus.
  • Some will tell you that this is telling us Jesus is YHWH of the OC Scriptures and essentially means Jesus is God.
  • It on its own is not directly telling us Jesus died on the cross - other parts of Romans tell us this - including what's inferred in the next clause about believing in our heart that God raised Him from dead [men].
  • It's telling us who Jesus is and this is what is vital for men to know and confess.

 

[LeeLoving]

They all say the same thing.

The KJV's "that if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus" meaning if you confess with your mouth Jesus is Lord does not come naturally to me at all. I honestly do not see that meaning in the words naturally, and I wouldn't have thought those words meant that unless I saw the modern translations. On their own I would have always thought they meant to talk about Jesus, which is what those words naturally mean to me. I suppose they might all say the same thing, I just find it really hard to grasp and it leaves me confused about how the modern translations are coming to those words when it seems a direct translation of the Greek renders it in the way which the KJV is written which actually reads as a different statement if you are looking at it that way.

 

[rewriter]

There are issues with all English translations - some more than others.

If Google Translate gave you that translation, then it really did not translate, but grabbed the KJV and gave it to you as translation.

Are you familiar with Greek to English Interlinears that show us the Greek and the English so we can see the basics of what translators are doing? Here's one: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/romans/10-9.htm

The words you seem most concerned with very literally from the Greek say: "that if you confess/acknowledge in the mouth of you 'Lord Jesus"...

• The reason English translations are inserting "is" between Lord and Jesus is simply to make it smoother for us to read in English. The Greek is very literally equating Lord = Jesus.
  • This is the point here - Lord = Jesus - Lord [is] Jesus.
  • Some will tell you that this is telling us Jesus is YHWH of the OC Scriptures and essentially means Jesus is God.
  • It on its own is not directly telling us Jesus died on the cross - other parts of Romans tell us this - including what's inferred in the next clause about believing in our heart that God raised Him from dead [men].
  • It's telling us who Jesus is and this is what is vital for men to know and confess.

I would have to look up the specific verse, but Paul links "Lord" with "Spirit" and by implication with the Risen Christ as opposed to the earthly Jesus.

 

[LeeLoving]

It’s rather suspicious that your translator gives you the KJV words precisely. Because of that, I think the problem is version bias, not inaccuracy.

Yeah... I checked another translator and it gave me this:

that if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

It seems I might have made an issue out of nothing, sorry to anybody who read the thread.

 

[NightTwister]

The KJV's "that if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus" meaning if you confess with your mouth Jesus is Lord does not come naturally to me at all. I honestly do not see that meaning in the words naturally, and I wouldn't have thought those words meant that unless I saw the modern translations. On their own I would have always thought they meant to talk about Jesus, which is what those words naturally mean to me. I suppose they might all say the same thing, I just find it really hard to grasp and it leaves me confused about how the modern translations are coming to those words when it seems a direct translation of the Greek renders it in the way which the KJV is written which actually reads as a different statement if you are looking at it that way.

This is the problem with using ancient-language translations. Many English words had a different meaning back then.