Understanding God’s election

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PaulThomson

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Jhn 11:25 Jesus said to her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that is believing in me, though he died, yet shall he live:
Jhn 11:26 And whosoever is living and is believing in me shall never die. Do you believe this?


"whoever is living and is believing in me shall never die..." does not logically imply that ""fallen man has no ability to please God until a supernatural work has been performed in us." Noe]r does it inply in this context that being made spiritually alive precedes faith.

Yeah, it does! Jesus knew that just as the physically dead have no physical ability, likewise neither do the spiritually dead have any spiritual ability. This is why he made the point the way he did.
Jhn 11 is about physical resurrection, NOT spiritual regeneration.
I am the resurrection and the life: he that is believing in me when he dies shall yet live physically again when I return. And whosoever is living and is believing on me when I return shall never die physically, but will be changed and become immortal in the twinkling of an eye.

You are taking a passge that is about physical resurrection from the dead and spiritualising it without contextual warrant to produce a Calvinist rabbit out of a scriptural hat by sleight of hand.

And Jesus' logic and theology squares with New Covenant promises.

Ezek 37:1-6
37:1 The hand of the LORD was upon me, and he brought me out by the Spirit of the LORD and set me in the middle of a valley; it was full of bones. 2 He led me back and forth among them, and I saw a great many bones on the floor of the valley, bones that were very dry. 3 He asked me, "Son of man, can these bones live?"


I said, "O Sovereign LORD, you alone know."

4 Then he said to me, "Prophesy to these bones and say to them, 'Dry bI will put brones, hear the word of the LORD! 5 This is what the Sovereign LORD says to these bones: I will make breath enter you, and you will come to life. 6 I will attach tendons to you and make flesh come upon you and cover you with skin; I will put breath in you, and you will come to life. Then you will know that I am the LORD.'"
NIV

And the Lord strongly reinforced the teaching above by essentially repeating it through his prophet. I suspect He wanted to drive the point home!

Ezek 37:11-13
11 Then he said to me: "Son of man, these bones are the whole house of Israel. They say, 'Our bones are dried up and our hope is gone; we are cut off.' 12 Therefore prophesy and say to them: 'This is what the Sovereign LORD says: O my people, I am going to open your graves and bring you up from them; I will bring you back to the land of Israel.
13 Then you, my people, will know that I am the LORD, when I open your graves and bring you up from them
NIV

But twice wasn't enough! To really hammer the point home to stubborn, obstinate, stiff-necked, hard-hearted, spiritually-uncircumcised people, the Lord continued:

Ezek 37:14
14 I will put my Spirit in you and you will live, and I will settle you in your own land.
Then you will know that I the LORD have spoken, and I have done it, declares the LORD.'"
NIV

So...FIRST the Lord instills in his chosen people the Spirit of Life, which of course imparts life to dead souls, and then after life is in a soul people come to saving knowledge of the Lord! All in this logical and theologically correct order. Of course, the first promise of the Holy Spirit came in the preceding chapter, and is all part of the New Covenant which is why God reiterated this important point (v. 26).

How can anyone here with a straight face and a modicum of honesty in their souls deny that these passages do not infer that God's grace is efficacious?
Again you are spiritualising a prophecy about an eventual physical resurrection beyond its context, to force it into supporting your theories about regeneration of the spirit. God is speking about the physical resurrection of the dead in Ez. 37.
 

Rufus

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Grace/favour is not supernatural. Man can bestow grace. God can bestow grace. God's 's grace is supernatural because it is God's grace and God is supernatural. Every attribute of God is supernatural. Man's grace is natural because man is natural. A regenerate man's grace is supernatural to the degree that God is participating in producing it. But grace is grace, whether supernatural or human. The language of scripture does not distinguish supernatural grace from human grace the way you are doing to make your theological stance seem logical.
Nice word salad of contradictions. I'm afraid to ask from whence you got the dressing to try to make it more palatable.

So...when God sends the rains upon mankind in their season, as well as make the sun to shine in its season, that's the same kind of grace as man's "natural grace"? Or what about all of Jesus' gracious miracles: Are they, too, of the same nature as man's "natural grace"?
 

Rufus

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Jhn 11:25 Jesus said to her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that is believing in me, though he died, yet shall he live:
Jhn 11:26 And whosoever is living and is believing in me shall never die. Do you believe this?


"whoever is living and is believing in me shall never die..." does not logically imply that ""fallen man has no ability to please God until a supernatural work has been performed in us." Noe]r does it inply in this context that being made spiritually alive precedes faith.



Jhn 11 is about physical resurrection, NOT spiritual regeneration.
I am the resurrection and the life: he that is believing in me when he dies shall yet live physically again when I return. And whosoever is living and is believing on me when I return shall never die physically, but will be changed and become immortal in the twinkling of an eye.

You are taking a passge that is about physical resurrection from the dead and spiritualising it without contextual warrant to produce a Calvinist rabbit out of a scriptural hat by sleight of hand.



Again you are spiritualising a prophecy about an eventual physical resurrection beyond its context, to force it into supporting your theories about regeneration of the spirit. God is speking about the physical resurrection of the dead in Ez. 37.
Re Jn 11: So...in your world Jesus was teaching this great pearl of wisdom in v. 26 that whoever is physically alive and believes in me will never die? IOW, Jesus' audience had no idea that one must be physically living in order to exercise faith? Anymore absurd opinions? Oh yeah...but you are right that Jn 11 isn't about spiritual regeneration; but it is about spiritual resurrection.

And you're dead wrong on Ezek 37! In fact, chapters 36 & 37 contain one large New Covenant prophecy of what God is going to do for the exiles in Babylon after they return to the Land. According to your interpretation, the exiles to whom Ezekiel was ministering and prophesying, would never come to saving knowledge of God until AFTER they died physically! These exiled Jews would never know that God is the LORD (YHWH) until AFTER their physical deaths. Talk about being a dollar short and a day late! :rolleyes: And now you can add on top of all your errors that men can physically die without ever knowing God in this age because God will save them in the next age? And your error also implies that eternal life is not a reality in this age -- only in the next one -- only when men are physically raised from the dead. Yet, the very substance of life eternal in this age is having a true knowledge of the Father and Son!

John 17:3
3 Now this is eternal life : that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent

NIV

There is no second chance after physical death. Anyone who dies in this age without having saving knowledge of the Lord will be lost forever!

2 Thess 1:8-10a
8 He will punish those
who do not know God and do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus. 9 They will be punished with everlasting destruction and shut out from the presence of the Lord and from the majesty of his power 10 on the day he comes to be glorified in his holy people ....
NIV
 
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John 3:19-20 and from Psalm 10:4 This is the verdict: Light has come into the world, but people loved darkness instead of Light because their deeds were evil. Everyone who does evil hates the Light, and does not come
into the Light for fear that his deeds will be exposed. The wicked reviles the Lord
 
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Ephesians 1:4. The choosing was done before time began. It's not subject to creation.
Also, your example is fine in the natural realm. But biblical hearing doesn't come naturally. Hearing comes by the word of God. That doesn't mean hearing the words of scripture is in view. Otherwise, everyone would be saved who heard a reading of scripture. This obviously isn't the case. Rather, there is power in the word of God as Paul says in Romans 1. But it is only powerful for those who believe. So that power is only demonstrated to those who the grace wrought faith.

2 Timothy 1:9~ He has saved us and called us to a holy calling, not because of our works, but by His own purpose and by the grace He granted us in Christ Jesus before time began. Ephesians 1:4-5~ He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless in His presence. In love He predestined us for adoption as His sons through Jesus Christ, according to the good pleasure of His will. Ephesians 1:11~ In Him we were also chosen as God’s own, having been predestined according to the plan of Him who works out everything by the counsel of His will.
 

PaulThomson

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Nice word salad of contradictions. I'm afraid to ask from whence you got the dressing to try to make it more palatable.

So...when God sends the rains upon mankind in their season, as well as make the sun to shine in its season, that's the same kind of grace as man's "natural grace"? Or what about all of Jesus' gracious miracles: Are they, too, of the same nature as man's "natural grace"?
A man uses his limited power to express grace, to bless others, even those who may not deserve to be blessed. God uses His unlimited power to express grace, to bless others, even those who may not deserve to be blessed. It's the power that is different, not grace. Grace is using the power one has to bless others, regardless of whether they deserve to be blessed or not.
 

PaulThomson

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Re Jn 11: So...in your world Jesus was teaching this great pearl of wisdom in v. 26 that whoever is physically alive and believes in me will never die? IOW, Jesus' audience had no idea that one must be physically living in order to exercise faith? Anymore absurd opinions? Oh yeah...but you are right that Jn 11 isn't about spiritual regeneration; but it is about spiritual resurrection.

And you're dead wrong on Ezek 37! In fact, chapters 36 & 37 contain one large New Covenant prophecy of what God is going to do for the exiles in Babylon after they return to the Land. According to your interpretation, the exiles to whom Ezekiel was ministering and prophesying, would never come to saving knowledge of God until AFTER they died physically! These exiled Jews would never know that God is the LORD (YHWH) until AFTER their physical deaths. Talk about being a dollar short and a day late! :rolleyes: And now you can add on top of all your errors that men can physically die without ever knowing God in this age because God will save them in the next age? And your error also implies that eternal life is not a reality in this age -- only in the next one -- only when men are physically raised from the dead. Yet, the very substance of life eternal in this age is having a true knowledge of the Father and Son!

John 17:3
3 Now this is eternal life : that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent

NIV

There is no second chance after physical death. Anyone who dies in this age without having saving knowledge of the Lord will be lost forever!

2 Thess 1:8-10a
8 He will punish those
who do not know God and do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus. 9 They will be punished with everlasting destruction and shut out from the presence of the Lord and from the majesty of his power 10 on the day he comes to be glorified in his holy people ....
NIV
You are flailing. A prophesy about returning from Babylon somewhere in the same two chapters in Ezekiel as a prophecy about physical resurrection does not make the prophecy of physical resurrection into a prophecy about spiritual revival during the return from Babylon.
 

PaulThomson

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Re Jn 11: So...in your world Jesus was teaching this great pearl of wisdom in v. 26 that whoever is physically alive and believes in me will never die? IOW, Jesus' audience had no idea that one must be physically living in order to exercise faith? Anymore absurd opinions? Oh yeah...but you are right that Jn 11 isn't about spiritual regeneration; but it is about spiritual resurrection.
I am at a loss to understand what you are saying here, and how you derive that from my post. Are you able to explain your line of reasoning that gets you from my post to your comments here?
 

Cameron143

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Grace/favour is not supernatural. Man can bestow grace. God can bestow grace. God's 's grace is supernatural because it is God's grace and God is supernatural. Every attribute of God is supernatural. Man's grace is natural because man is natural. A regenerate man's grace is supernatural to the degree that God is participating in producing it. But grace is grace, whether supernatural or human. The language of scripture does not distinguish supernatural grace from human grace the way you are doing to make your theological stance seem logical.
I'm not distinguishing between natural and supernatural grace as such because I'm not talking about the grace that man can demonstrate. We are talking about the grace of God in salvation. As far as I know there is no verse that has salvation coming by the grace of man. So this has no relevance to the discussion.

I'm distinguishing between grace that is common to mankind as a result of creation, and that which is not. For example, at the end of Matthew 5, common grace would include both rain and sunshine are for the evil and good, the just and the unjust. But everyone doesn't get saved. So there are some who do not experience the grace that attends salvation. It is not common to every individual.

All grace is supernatural whose source is God. Not all grace is common.
 
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A man uses his limited power to express grace, to bless others, even those who may not deserve to be blessed. God uses His unlimited power to express grace, to bless others, even those who may not deserve to be blessed. It's the power that is different, not grace. Grace is using the power one has to bless others, regardless of whether they deserve to be blessed or not.
Such lofty talk, as if anyone deserves God's grace. One day hopefully soon you will see what a fount of nonsense you are.
 
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Here's and example of para (beside) which is used with all three cases, combining the preposition's idea of beside and the case idea of movement or rest.

https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/παρά
Preposition
[edit]
πᾰρᾰ́ (părắ) (governs the genitive, dative and accusative)

  1. [with genitive]
    1. from
    2. because of
  2. [with dative]
    1. at, beside, by, near
  3. μένειν παρὰ τισίménein parà tisí ― to stay at someone's house/home
  4. [with accusative]
    1. contrary to
    2. beside, by, near (w/ verbs of coming or going; w/ verbs of past motion; w/ verbs of striking or wounding)
  5. παρ’ ἔμ’ ἵστασοpar’ ém’ hístaso ― stand by/beside me
So. 1. We have the idea with the genitive of from + beside, so from or because of.
2. We have the idea with the dative of at + beside, so at, beside, near. used for staying at someone's [house}
3. We have the idea with the accusative of towards + beside, so with verbs of coming or going, coming near (to beside) going near (to beside). Also if someone is coming near, they may also bump into you and push you where you were not intending to go, hence contrary to, opposed to. Or, you bring two items side by side to compare them easier, hence contrary to. because one is mixing these two aspects with prepositions and cases, there are a number of possible words that could be used to express the preposition depending on the context> But hopefully, you can see the nuances that the Greeks had in mind.

Looking at en + dative, or the dative with an implied "en", a fish swimming in water swims by means of water, so en + dative can mean by means of, as well. by means of the grace in which we are immersed.

Looking at dia + genitive, a fish entering and swimming through a kelp bed and leaving it would be dia (through). A fish entering from utside and on its way through a kelp bed but still in it, would be eis (into). A fish swimming from inside a kelp bed and exiting it, would be ek/ex (out from). Picture a fish fleeing a predator and escaping into a kelp bed. Think of grace as the water and faith as the kelp bed, and swimming as work. The exit boundary of the kelp bed is the completion of faith. The fish is saved by means of/in water swimming into, through and out of the kelp bed, i.e. completing the work of swimming through the kelp bed. We are told elsewhere, that faith is completed by the works done out of faith.

But in fact, it is also already saved by entering the kelp bed and resting hidden in the kelp bed.

Jas 2:22
Do you see how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect (eteleiOthE: completed/ finished - the same verb Jesus used to say "It is finished" on the cross).
I have been meditating on this "fish in the sea" analogy for understanding the prepositions and cases in "saved in/by means of grace through faith". I would like to tweak it a little.

All fish, both the good and the predatory, live and move and have their being in the sea. The sea water is in this case analogous to God. We all, both good and evil, live and move and have our being in Him. Sea water is a complex mix of ingredients, God is a complex mix of attributes.
One ingredient of sea water is dissolved oxygen. Oxygen means life. One attribute of God is life.
The ubiquitous provision of this dissolved oxygen necessary to keep alive every creature in the sea, and all the other ingredients in the seawater that are ubiquitously available to sea creatures, whether a good serving pilot fish or a murderous predator, is like grace: the ubiquitous provision of life and intellect and emotions and sunshine and rain to both the just and the unjust.
And if access to this ubiquitous oxygen is stopped for some particular fish, by being hauled out of the sea by a hook and line for instance, that fish will die.

All fish live within the ubiquitous undifferentiated provision of ingredients of sea water. All humans live in the being of God, God's being includes all of God's attributes, which attributes are encompassing us and are available to us: that is, we all dwell in grace.

All fish are working within the sea water's ubiquitous provision of whatb they need for life. . All humans are working within God's gracious provision of life's necessities.

A small fish is susceptible to death, while alone and enjoying the ubiquitous provision of the open sea. A small fish being chased by a predator needs a place to hide. It may flee from the open sea into a thick kelp bed that hinders the larger predator and then exit the other side back into the open sea minus the pursuing predator. There is sea water in the open sea and also in the kelp bed.

Likewise a human is susceptible to death, while alone and enjoying the ubiquitous provision of God's blessings. A human also needs somewhere to go to escape from death. There is grace available to the person outside the faith, and the same grace is available to the one in the faith.

W can say of the fish that entered and left the kelp bed that it has been saved from death, both within and by means of the ubiquitous unrestricted unprejudiced characteristics of the sea that are available without distinction to both the small fish and the predator, and also through and by means of the kelp bed.
We can say of the person who entered the faith and then left the faith that they have been saved from death, both in/by means of grace (dative: tOi chariti) i.e. in/by means of God's ubiquitous unrestricted unprejudiced provision, and also through/by means of faith (dia tEs pistos).

The fish was working (swimming) in the open sea and it is working (swimming) in the kelp. It is working (swimming) wherever it is. It is not saved by swimming, but by where it chooses to swim. A fish entering the kelp and abiding in the kelp is being saved . A fish that enters the kelp and abides in the kelp and then leaves the kelp, has been saved. He could be saved again, if he returns to the kelp when it becomes aware again of a predator stalking it. Swimming within the kelp doed not save it. Being in the kelp is what saves it.
A person is working, whether outside of faith or in the faith. He is working wherever he is. He is not saved by working, but by where he chooses to work. The person entering the faith and abiding in the faith and then leaving the faith behind is someone who has been saved. They could be saved again later, if they return to the faith when they become aware again of death stalking them. A person who enters the faith and is abiding in the faith is being saved. Working in the faith does not save. Being in the faith is what saves us.
 
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I'm not distinguishing between natural and supernatural grace as such because I'm not talking about the grace that man can demonstrate. We are talking about the grace of God in salvation. As far as I know there is no verse that has salvation coming by the grace of man. So this has no relevance to the discussion.

I'm distinguishing between grace that is common to mankind as a result of creation, and that which is not. For example, at the end of Matthew 5, common grace would include both rain and sunshine are for the evil and good, the just and the unjust. But everyone doesn't get saved. So there are some who do not experience the grace that attends salvation. It is not common to every individual.

All grace is supernatural whose source is God. Not all grace is common.
You are resorting to the logical fallacy of special pleading. You are claiming that grace, when applied to God, means something different from grace when applied to man, because God is a special case.
And you are pleading that the grace provided for believers must be different from the grace provided for unbelievers, because unbelievers do not receive all the grace that believers receive.

It could be that the same grace is available to all, but some choose not to avail themselves of all the grace available to them.
 

Mem

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Sir, I did not challenge or encourage you to read those four chapters in the OT because I'm unfamiliar with their content; but because you might be. But now that you have read those passages afresh, then we both know now that there are NO CONDITIONS for Israel to fulfill in those passages. Therefore, the promises made in those chapters are unilateral in nature, which is precisely why the New Covenant is unlike the Old!

What I bolded above is an odd statement since the promises were made in the context of prophecy! Those promises were to be fulfilled after God returned exiled Israel to their land. So, yes, Israel had to wait until God fulfilled his promises! Moreover, if Israel could conjure up their own faith, why would God need to give them that gift?
That they are permitted to return is the grace given them.
 

Cameron143

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You are resorting to the logical fallacy of special pleading. You are claiming that grace, when applied to God, means something different from grace when applied to man, because God is a special case.
And you are pleading that the grace provided for believers must be different from the grace provided for unbelievers, because unbelievers do not receive all the grace that believers receive.

It could be that the same grace is available to all, but some choose not to avail themselves of all the grace available to them.
I'm simply employing the language of scripture. We are saved by grace. If you aren't saved, you haven't experienced the grace imparted during salvation. This doesn't mean that someone who isn't saved doesn't experience the grace of God, as was exemplified in Matthew 5, but it certainly means they haven't experienced the grace present in salvation.
The idea that someone has to avail themselves of grace escapes me. Either the grace exists or it does not. It doesn't exist because someone avails themselves of it. It exists because God performed and manifested it. The sun shines on the just and the unjust. This is a manifestation of grace. Likewise, salvation occurs when God manifests grace through faith.
 

PaulThomson

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I'm simply employing the language of scripture. We are saved by grace. If you aren't saved, you haven't experienced the grace imparted during salvation. This doesn't mean that someone who isn't saved doesn't experience the grace of God, as was exemplified in Matthew 5, but it certainly means they haven't experienced the grace present in salvation.
The idea that someone has to avail themselves of grace escapes me. Either the grace exists or it does not. It doesn't exist because someone avails themselves of it. It exists because God performed and manifested it. The sun shines on the just and the unjust. This is a manifestation of grace. Likewise, salvation occurs when God manifests grace through faith.
You are employing the words of scripture. Engaging with the language of scripture entails more than just choosing the lexical meaning for each word that best fits one's prejudices, and then stringing those individual meanings together to say what one want's to hear.

A man can choose to sit in his damp dark squalid basement, or he can avail himself of the sunshine outside on the street. The man is not in cold darkness because God has not yet manifested His gracious sun for the man to experience. The man is in cold darkness because he is refusing to avail himself of what God's grace is providing for all.
 

Cameron143

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You are employing the words of scripture. Engaging with the language of scripture entails more than just choosing the lexical meaning for each word that best fits one's prejudices, and then stringing those individual meanings together to say what one want's to hear.

A man can choose to sit in his damp dark squalid basement, or he can avail himself of the sunshine outside on the street. The man is not in cold darkness because God has not yet manifested His gracious sun for the man to experience. The man is in cold darkness because he is refusing to avail himself of what God's grace is providing for all.
And yet God's grace isn't manifested to all in salvation; for if it was, all would be saved. No one is not saved by the grace of God through faith. Everyone who is saved is saved by the grace of God through faith. Every single time the grace of God is manifested through faith, salvation is the result. So even if you believe common grace can be availed of or not, when grace is manifested through faith, it always results in salvation.
 

PaulThomson

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And yet God's grace isn't manifested to all in salvation; for if it was, all would be saved. No one is not saved by the grace of God through faith. Everyone who is saved is saved by the grace of God through faith. Every single time the grace of God is manifested through faith, salvation is the result. So even if you believe common grace can be availed of or not, when grace is manifested through faith, it always results in salvation.
Your conclusion is based on your presupposing irresistible grace, which is not a verified premise. Many of us do not believe in your irresistible grace. If grace is not irresistible, then your division of grace into common and salvific faith-bearing grace is artificial and arbitrary.

Where is your scriptural proof that the grace that a man accessed to believe unto salvation was only made available to him by God at the time he believed and was withheld from Him and never available to the man before then?
 
Would you agree with those who say that a person who does not choose Jesus when they becomes aware of Jesus, is choosing to reject Jesus? If not, why not?
Yes, but not necessarily a permanent choice. Like Saul/Paul, a person may become aware of Jesus long before they actually come to believe on Him.


Under five point Calvinism, can a person who is not saved reasonably argue to God "I was made without an ability to want and to choose Christ, and You chose not to give those to me during my lifetime" ? If not, why not?
I would say that a person who remains (in bible terms) "dead in trespasses and sins" won't even think to make such an argument. If they really want to choose/believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, that want is a result of God's work.

I concede to you that "God is good" is an a priori premise, and not a derived premise. Although the nine-pointer statement appears to be "Good is God." What does "Good is God" mean?
I take it to mean that there is absolutely nothing evil in God. Everything He does, thinks or says is perfect.

Nine Point Calvinists are identical to Seven Point Calvinists, but also add two extra points to the list: 8. Good is God - Everything God does is good, because God is good, and good cannot be good apart from God. God and good are synonyms. [/QUOTE]
 
Asserting that that any capacity of faith is inadequate to please God seems highly suspect, especially that God is fully aware that is all we have to work with in the first place. The woman who gave her two shekels comes to mind.
What woman who gave two shekels? I know about the woman who gave two mites:

“Then one poor widow came and threw in two mites, which make a quadrans.” (Mr 12:42 NKJV)

I understand that there were 384 mites needed to make one shekel.
 
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But John 3:16 does NOT say: " “"For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that every single human being who ever lived should not perish but have everlasting life.”
Correct. God loves/initiates; souls reflect His love/cooperate--or not.