What Changed?

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
3,465
447
83
In adam all die, In christ shall all be made alive

so tell me, If babies are born physically alive,m What kind of death do you sup[pose they are born in.
I don't understand your question. It does not seem to relate to anything I have posted in this thread.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
5,843
1,848
113
I don't understand your question. It does not seem to relate to anything I have posted in this thread.
Thats because you do not want to admit that babies are born IN ADAM, hence they are born DEAD, also known as SPIRITUAl death and hence they need born again
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
18,784
6,452
113
62
Was sin inside Adam, created very good BTW, before he yielded to satan's lie and transgressed God's command?
No. But death passed on all mankind before any were born. What affect do you believe that had? And why was it so important that Jesus be born of a virgin and of the Holy Spirit?
 

JohnRH

Junior Member
Mar 5, 2018
670
321
63
Where does the Bible mention "spiritually dead"? Where does the Bible say children are conceived spiritually dead.

If anything, Romans 7 indicates that the child is born alive (spiritually?), and dies (spiritually) when the law comes.... "When the law came, sin lived again and I died."
Why do babies physically die before they get the law?
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
3,465
447
83
Why do babies physically die before they get the law?
Because physical death was unleashed on all humanity as a consequence of Adam's fall. And babies are human beings.

Rom. 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, upon which all sinned:

13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
3,465
447
83
No. But death passed on all mankind before any were born. What affect do you believe that had? And why was it so important that Jesus be born of a virgin and of the Holy Spirit?
Death passing upon all had the effect of either making some more careful to arrive at death and judgment in good standing with God, or of pressuring others to take sinful shortcuts to acquiring resources and pleasures before their temporary life expired.

Jesus was to be a member of humanity through Mary, and of divinity through the Holy Spirit.

 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
3,465
447
83
Thats because you do not want to admit that babies are born IN ADAM, hence they are born DEAD, also known as SPIRITUAl death and hence they need born again
Yes, they are born subject to death: physically mortal. Physical mortality is not spiritual death.
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
18,784
6,452
113
62
Because physical death was unleashed on all humanity as a consequence of Adam's fall. And babies are human beings.

Rom. 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, upon which all sinned:

13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
Only sin can cause death. If you do not believe they had sinned, what sin caused their death?
The same was true of Jesus. He never sinned, but died. This is the proof that our sins were laid upon Him.
And this is the point Paul is making in Romans 5. There was no law in place between Adam and Moses, yet people were dying. Since there was only 1 human sin accrued at that point, it must have been Adam's sin imputed to them that brought about their deaths.
 

HeIsHere

Well-known member
May 21, 2022
5,740
2,239
113
Yes, they are born subject to death: physically mortal. Physical mortality is not spiritual death.

I would say were are born spiritually dead, in the sense were are disconnected from our Creator, separated, however this does not equate to born with original sin as taught by Augustine.
 

JohnRH

Junior Member
Mar 5, 2018
670
321
63
Because physical death was unleashed on all humanity as a consequence of Adam's fall. And babies are human beings.

Rom. 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, upon which all sinned:

13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
Do you understand death to be "separation"?
 

Rufus

Well-known member
Feb 17, 2024
2,236
237
63
"Cannot" does not means "can not."
So, God can sin? He can lie? He can deny himself (his essence, what and who he is)?

Here's the MW Collegiate Definition of "cannot""

Main Entry:can£not
Pronunciation:*ka-(*)n*t; k*-*n*t, ka-*
Date:15th century

: can not
–cannot but or cannot help but also cannot help : to be unable to do otherwise than


So...when I say that man cannot not sin, I'm implying the antithesis to that proposition: Man cannot be [inherently] righteous.
 

Rufus

Well-known member
Feb 17, 2024
2,236
237
63
I would say were are born spiritually dead, in the sense were are disconnected from our Creator, separated, however this does not equate to born with original sin as taught by Augustine.
If Adam's sin is not imputed to all us, then the analogy in Rom 5:12ff. breaks down badly, since the Last Adam's righteousness is imputed to his people. Adam is the federal head of the human race, while the Last Adam is the federal head of his God's chosen, covenant people. It is precisely because the First Adam's sin was imputed to all his progeny that the Last Adam's righteousness must be imputed to God's people. This is what Federal Headship is all about. This is why no one should want to die IN Adam -- their federal head.

Also, being "disconnected from our Creator" is a FATAL condition! Being separated from him means man is separated from spiritual Life itself -- separated (cut off) from the Author of Life. On the day Adam ate and disobeyed, the Spirit of the Living God departed from him, thus he died.
 

Ballaurena

Well-known member
May 27, 2024
415
273
63
And this is the point Paul is making in Romans 5. There was no law in place between Adam and Moses, yet people were dying. Since there was only 1 human sin accrued at that point, it must have been Adam's sin imputed to them that brought about their deaths.
Look again. It specifically says in Romans 5:12 that all have sinned (See below). Verse 8 also suggests this. In fact other scriptures also point blank say it. Realize that there is a distinction being made in the chapter between sin and trespass. This is most evident in verse 14.

You also need to be careful about not confusing the natural consequences of sin with judgement for trespass, physical death with spiritual death which is related, and origination of source of consequences with totality of source of consequences as it relates to Adam's sin.

To clarify the last of these, just because sin entered the world through Adam, doesn't mean he is the only one who "accrued" sinned. For one thing, you are forgetting, or maybe not understanding about the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. The tree was deception - mixing up truth and error. When Adam took the fruit the whole world changed, and everyone down stream has reaped the confusion that followed, which makes it essentially impossible not to sin.

Romans 5:12 NASB1995
"Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned— "

Romans 5:14 NIV
"Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who is a pattern of the one to come."

Romans 5:8 NIV
"But God demonstrates his own love for us in this: While we were still sinners, Christ died for us."

Romans 3:23 NIV
"for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God..."

Also possibly pertinent:

Romans 6:20-23 NIV
"When you were slaves to sin, you were free from the control of righteousness. What benefit did you reap at that time from the things you are now ashamed of? Those things result in death! But now that you have been set free from sin and have become slaves of God, the benefit you reap leads to holiness, and the result is eternal life. For the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord."
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
18,784
6,452
113
62
Look again. It specifically says in Romans 5:12 that all have sinned (See below). Verse 8 also suggests this. In fact other scriptures also point blank say it. Realize that there is a distinction being made in the chapter between sin and trespass. This is most evident in verse 14.

You also need to be careful about not confusing the natural consequences of sin with judgement for trespass, physical death with spiritual death which is related, and origination of source of consequences with totality of source of consequences as it relates to Adam's sin.

To clarify the last of these, just because sin entered the world through Adam, doesn't mean he is the only one who "accrued" sinned. For one thing, you are forgetting, or maybe not understanding about the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. The tree was deception - mixing up truth and error. When Adam took the fruit the whole world changed, and everyone down stream has reaped the confusion that followed, which makes it essentially impossible not to sin.

Romans 5:12 NASB1995
"Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned— "

Romans 5:14 NIV
"Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who is a pattern of the one to come."

Romans 5:8 NIV
"But God demonstrates his own love for us in this: While we were still sinners, Christ died for us."

Romans 3:23 NIV
"for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God..."

Also possibly pertinent:

Romans 6:20-23 NIV
"When you were slaves to sin, you were free from the control of righteousness. What benefit did you reap at that time from the things you are now ashamed of? Those things result in death! But now that you have been set free from sin and have become slaves of God, the benefit you reap leads to holiness, and the result is eternal life. For the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord."
Romans 5:12 is telling us that Adam's sin was imputed to us in the same way Christ's righteousness is. Just as Christ is the 2nd Adam and the results of His actions are imputed to us, so too the first Adam's actions imputed something to us.

The reason this is so is because God chose both Adam and Christ to represent the human race. In Adam all died. In Christ all live. The first representative failed. The 2nd did not.

Not to understand the above is the reason many fall into a myriad of divergent doctrine. There is simply no way a child could die apart from sin because sin causes death. If children do die, and we know that they do, it can only be that sin has been laid to their account.
 

FollowerofShiloh

Well-known member
Jan 24, 2024
4,321
714
113
If newborns weren't born in sin, they would never die until they were old enough to commit their first sin.
Technically speaking if Peter explained in Acts chapter 2 that if you become saved then the generations after you will be saved it would be the same for those who reject God. Their generations after would not be protected by God but due to generational sin be subjected to what we see many times with birth defects, death, or even child illness. So if we're going by the BIBLE, it's generational sin and not specifically their own sin.
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
3,465
447
83
I would say were are born spiritually dead, in the sense were are disconnected from our Creator, separated, however this does not equate to born with original sin as taught by Augustine.
Why do you think we are born disconnected from our Creator?
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
3,465
447
83
Only sin can cause death. If you do not believe they had sinned, what sin caused their death?
The same was true of Jesus. He never sinned, but died. This is the proof that our sins were laid upon Him.
And this is the point Paul is making in Romans 5. There was no law in place between Adam and Moses, yet people were dying. Since there was only 1 human sin accrued at that point, it must have been Adam's sin imputed to them that brought about their deaths.
Paul says in Romans 9 that -

9:11 (For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;)

12 It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger.

Adam's sin caused their death. It is not necessary for Adam's sin to be imputed to a child for the child to die. The child can be prone to death despite being sinless, simply because he is a descendant of Adam.

If I say that the person who murders will go to prison, that does not mean that everyone who goes to prison must be a murderer. Saying that the soul that sins will die, does not mean that anyone who dies must have sinned.
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
3,465
447
83
So, God can sin? He can lie? He can deny himself (his essence, what and who he is)?

Here's the MW Collegiate Definition of "cannot""

Main Entry:can£not
Pronunciation:*ka-(*)n*t; k*-*n*t, ka-*
Date:15th century


: can not
–cannot but or cannot help but also cannot help : to be unable to do otherwise than


So...when I say that man cannot not sin, I'm implying the antithesis to that proposition: Man cannot be [inherently] righteous.
God cannot sin. It is impossible for God to sin.
It is true that a man can not sin. It is possible for a man not to sin when tempted. There is a way of escape from temptation provided for men that they can take.
But it is not true that a man cannot sin. It is possible for a man to sin.