Were Nephilim (Gen 6) judged differently by God?

I am a Jew and like all male Jews from age 6 to 13 we go to Synagogue and learn to recite the Torah from memory, learn the Prophets and Psalms and then we can learn the sayings of the Talmud. They've been the same Torah/Tanakh and Jewish writings since Jesus day.

So you are not a believer in Christ?

My grandfather was the first to accept Christ. But he knew the value of letting his son, then me, then my own son, soon my grandson sit through Mikra and those who learn quicker Mishnah before studying the Talmud or Mitzvoth.

We know the Tanakh/Old Testament better than anyone and when added to the New Testament we know where it all fits immediately.

The best part is we're not diluted by doctrine and tradition so putting the puzzle together is immediate and without doubt.

lol!

YOU’RE the one that claims to not be Christian.

I reiterate. Would you like to hear the Gospel little one?

The historical record shows that Enoch was not accepted as inspired.

Josephus says: “We do not possess myriads of inconsistent books, conflicting with each other. Our
books, those which are justly accredited, are but two and twenty [the equivalent of the 39 books
of the Hebrew Scriptures according to modern division], and contain the record of all time.”

The Apocryphal and Pseudepigraphical writings were preserved in the Catholic Bible but not
canonized in the Hebrew Bible due to a number of reasons, starting with their questionable
authorship or authenticity. They were all written during a time (400 years) between the two
testaments when it was acknowledged there were no prophets, and no direct revelation from God.

The New Testament Jews never included them in any Jewish collection of Scriptures, so contrary
to people believing that books have been removed from the Bible, the opposite is actually true:
books have been added. During New Testament times, without argument or qualification, a
commonly understood body of books was in existence which the Jews recognized to be the
sacred and authorized Scriptures. What is known as the Apocrypha was not among them.

The Apocrypha contains a great variety of errors – historical, geographical, chronological, and moral,
andpromotes doctrines which contradict the Bible. Without these apocryphal books, the Roman Catholic
Church would have absolutely NO support for their doctrines of purgatory, praying for the dead and
offering sacrifices for the dead (indulgences was a significant reason for the reformation). The inclusion
of the Apocrypha in the original printing of the King James Bible was strictly for historical reasons.

In Josephus day, there was only the 22 Tanakh Books + Oral Traditions.
No New Testament.

Oh, I see, you are using the Catholic Encyclopedia explanation. Now it makes sense.


The Jesus, Apostles quotes of Enoch


Jude 1:14-15, quoting Enoch 1:9 {2:1} [1]

"And Enoch also, the seventh from Adam, prophesied of these, saying, Behold, the Lord cometh with ten thousands of his saints,
"To execute judgment upon all, and to convince all that are ungodly among them of all their ungodly deeds which they have ungodly committed, and of all their hard speeches, which ungodly sinners have spoken against him."

For yourself, start here:
https://www.k5learning.com/reading-comprehension-worksheets

Also, kids love fables. They’d like your stories of corrupt DNA more than bible scholars.

Why would I click on a link from a non Christian?

I think it's hard to let go of the book of Enoch because you were brought up on that as were other Jewish Christians like Jude in the Bible. But to Gentile Christians, if it's not a part of the Bible, it doesn't have the same weight as what got included in the Bible. It's a very interesting view you have though because of your Jewish religious education as a child and then your Christian religious education when you got saved!


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The Sethite theory commits a hermeneutical error called "illegitimate totality transfer":

Every Hebrew occurrence of "bene elohim" refers to angels.
Every Greek occurrence of "huios theou" refers to human believers.
But since both phrases are translated into the same English words, people assume they refer to the same audience. But they are theologically distinct:

"bene elohim"



"huios theou"

Revelation 13:8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.

John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

Then there are other places where it says things like "in the beginning was the word"...and "the word was God" and "the Word became flesh and dwelt among us".True, Jesus did not come to die until many years later, but, Jesus, being God, exists outside of time. He exists in the present, the past, and the future; all at the same "time". Hence He said things like "before Abraham was, I am". He was standing there talking to them and existing in the past and future at that very moment. True, the cross did not happen "until the fullness of time" as the Bible says, but from God's perspective it had already happened. So people were saved way back in Genesis, by grace through faith, same as now.
Hence, the Bible says things like "By faith Abel offered unto God a more excellent sacrifice than Cain, by which he obtained witness that he was righteous, God testifying of his gifts: and by it he being dead yet speaketh."(Hebrews 11 reference to Genesis 3) and "then began men to call upon the name of the Lord"(in Genesis 4) and "Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord" (in Genesis 6) and "Enoch walked with God and was not for God took him"(in Genesis 5) . They may not have obtained "the adoption" in their time but their inheritance was a done deal because of faith. I say these men were the "sons of God", by faith, mentioned in Genesis 6.

Jesus was predestined to be the Salvation way to eternal life before creation ever began.
That's the meaning you are seeking to those scripture references.

...You must be busy attending a flock or something. Or have you conceded?

As a matter of fact my wife and I tagged about 30 sheep today then wormed them then sprayed them for mites. We then repaired some fence. After that I did some carpentry work on the back porch.. I will pick up where I left off with you. I asked you... "If I asked you "where were you when the Whitehouse was built? ....declare if you have understanding". What would be your answer?". Since you would not answer, I will attempt to answer for you. Since you were not born yet when the White House was built, the logical answer would be ,"I was not born yet". Since God asked Job to ,"declare if thou hasr understanding,,," I must say it does not take a lot of 'understanding" to simply answer "I was not around yet because I was not born,"

For those that may be confused about what this poster is exactly talking about I’ll tell you.

He absurdly claims that the sons of God, mentioned in Job 38, that witnessed God creating the world, and shouted for joy, are not angelic beings, but HUMAN beings!

This is the bizarre and ridiculous lengths one must go to deny the basic truths of Genesis 6.

The left are scared:

https://x.com/TrumpWarRoom/status/1789439889328492673

It seems like you are confusing me with someone else on this website. Perhaps you read the wrong comment(s)?
Anyways, what is your response to my refutation of the Sethite theory of the Genesis 6:1-4?

You asked the following....I answered.

Every Hebrew occurrence of "bene elohim" and every Greek occurrence of "huilos theou" mean the same thing: "sons of God". As to WHO they are referring to is apparently a debate, not the conclusion. But I will give one example:
Job chapter 1 and 2 refer to some "sons of God" who came "before the Lord". I have been told and taught that this meeting took place "before God's throne" in "Heaven". But neither Job 1:6, nor Job 2:1 mentions a throne or "heaven", they simply say "before the Lord". I will show you two other passages of scripture which use the phrase "before the Lord".

Genesis 18:22 And the men turned their faces from thence, and went toward Sodom: but Abraham stood yet before the Lord.
2 Samuel 6:14 And David danced before the Lord with all his might; and David was girded with a linen ephod.

The Bible says that both David and Abraham were "before the Lord" and I trust that you will agree that this occurred on planet earth; not "heaven". So I don't see why the meetings of "sons of God" coming "before the Lord" would have to be in heaven either. The Book of Job DOES use the word "angels" in chapter 4:
Job 4:18 Behold, he put no trust in his servants; and his angels he charged with folly:
Why would the author of the Book of Job use "sons of God" in 3 places but "angels" in another if they were both the same thing?

Now, as to Job 38:7 I have a theory that the "sons of God" in Job 38: 7 are all the believers who have ever lived and ever will live and that the laying of the "cornerstone" is after the second coming of Christ at the establishment of "Zion" or the New Jerusalem, wherein all of the saints will indeed "shout for joy". If this is so, it is a prophecy of a future event wherein every saint throughout history past present and future will be there. It is spoken in past tense as Isaiah 53 is. Some people call this the "prophetic perfect tense". But I theorize(there's that word again) that it is used in past tense here because God indeed HAS already laid the "cornerstone and foundations" because He exists in the past present and future all at the same time. So, when God asked Job:

Job 38:
4 Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth? declare, if thou hast understanding.

5 Who hath laid the measures thereof, if thou knowest? or who hath stretched the line upon it?

6 Whereupon are the foundations thereof fastened? or who laid the corner stone thereof;

7 When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?

So, based on the interpretation above, the correct answer from Job, would have been "I was there"; because Job will in fact be among the saints at that future time. But God's question was too profound for Job, as Job did not have the complete Word of God like we have today.
I will reiterate before someone gets all up in arms: it is a THEORY.

וַיִּרְא֤וּ בְנֵי־הָֽאֱלֹהִים֙ אֶת־בְּנ֣וֹת הָֽאָדָ֔ם כִּ֥י טֹבֹ֖ת הֵ֑נָּה וַיִּקְח֤וּ לָהֶם֙ נָשִׁ֔ים מִכֹּ֖ל אֲשֶׁ֥ר בָּחָֽרוּ׃
the divine beings [sons of God] saw how pleasing the human women were and took wives from among those who delighted them