Does the sovereignty of God nullify the grace of God?

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Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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#1
According to the “gospel of TULIP” the answer is in the affirmative. According to the Bible the answer is clearly “No”. There are some Christians (known as Calvinists) who sincerely believe that because God is sovereign, He sovereignly “elects” some for salvation and others for damnation. But that contradicts what is in the Bible: (a) that God will have ALL men to be saved, and come unto the knowledge of the truth, (b) that God is not willing that any should perish, but that ALL should come to repentance, and (c) that God now commands ALL men everywhere to repent.

THE SOVEREIGNTY OF GOD
There is no question whatsoever that the Lord God Almighty is a sovereign God and King, who sits upon His eternal throne. This means that God rules the universe and also God rules in the affairs of men. There are numerous Scriptures that assert these truths. [But you will not find the words “sovereign” or “sovereignty” in the King James Bible (to which we will look exclusively)].


Let the heavens be glad, and let the earth rejoice: and let men say among the nations, The LORD reigneth. (1 Chron 16:31)

For God is the King of all the earth: sing ye praises with understanding. God reigneth over the heathen: God sitteth upon the throne of his holiness. (Ps 47:7,8)

The LORD reigneth, he is clothed with majesty; the LORD is clothed with strength, wherewith he hath girded himself: the world also is stablished, that it cannot be moved. Thy throne is established of old: thou art from everlasting. (Ps 93:1,2)

Say among the heathen that the LORD reigneth: the world also shall be established that it shall not be moved: he shall judge the people righteously. (Ps 96:10)

The LORD reigneth; let the earth rejoice; let the multitude of isles be glad thereof For thou, LORD, art high above all the earth: thou art exalted far above all gods.(Ps 97:1,9)

The LORD reigneth; let the people tremble: he sitteth between the cherubims; let the earth be moved. (Ps 99:1)
But our God is in the heavens: he hath done whatsoever he hath pleased. (Ps 115:3)


Whatsoever the LORD pleased, that did he in heaven, and in earth, in the seas, and all deep places. (Ps 135:6)

This matter is by the decree of the watchers, and the demand by the word of the holy ones: to the intent that the living may know that the most High ruleth in the kingdom of men, and giveth it to whomsoever he will, and setteth up over it the basest of men. (Dan 4:17)


And I heard as it were the voice of a great multitude, and as the voice of many waters, and as the voice of mighty thunderings, saying, Alleluia: for the Lord God omnipotent reigneth.(Rev 19:6)

THE GRACE OF GOD
While the sovereignty of God is unquestionable, the grace of God is also evident throughout all Scripture. And it is only, and purely, by the grace of God that sinners are saved and given the gift of eternal life. Also, the grace of God is available to all mankind, as we see in Titus 2:11; 3:4-7:

For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men… But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared, Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour; That being justified by his grace, we should be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life.

But you will never find the sovereignty of God in the same passages which speak of the grace of God. God’s grace extends to all men – all humanity – for the salvation of all. And the sole basis for the offer of salvation is the finished work of Christ in His death, burial, and resurrection. That is central to “the Gospel of the Grace of God”: But none of these things move me, neither count I my life dear unto myself, so that I might finish my course with joy, and the ministry, which I have received of the Lord Jesus, to testify the gospel of the grace of God. (Acts 20:24)

But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. (Rom 5:15)

Moreover, brethren, we do you to wit [know] of the grace of God bestowed on the churches of Macedonia; (2 Cor 8:1)

For the hope which is laid up for you in heaven, whereof ye heard before in the word of the truth of the gospel; Which is come unto you, as it is in all the world; and bringeth forth fruit, as it doth also in you, since the day ye heard of it, and knew the grace of God in truth: (Col 1:5,6)

But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man. (Heb 2:9)

So we see in all these verses that the sovereignty of God does not enter the picture when the grace of God is presented. Furthermore, it is purely by the grace of God that Christ “tasted death for every man”. Meaning that when Christ died on the cross, He took all the sins of the world upon Himself, and paid the full penalty for those sins. Therefore He is called “the Lamb of God which taketh away the sin of the world” (John 1:29). As a result God offers the gift of eternal life freely to those who believe on the Lord Jesus Christ. And no one is excluded, unless they exclude themselves.
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
3,467
452
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#2
According to the “gospel of TULIP” the answer is in the affirmative. According to the Bible the answer is clearly “No”. There are some Christians (known as Calvinists) who sincerely believe that because God is sovereign, He sovereignly “elects” some for salvation and others for damnation. But that contradicts what is in the Bible: (a) that God will have ALL men to be saved, and come unto the knowledge of the truth, (b) that God is not willing that any should perish, but that ALL should come to repentance, and (c) that God now commands ALL men everywhere to repent.

THE SOVEREIGNTY OF GOD
There is no question whatsoever that the Lord God Almighty is a sovereign God and King, who sits upon His eternal throne. This means that God rules the universe and also God rules in the affairs of men. There are numerous Scriptures that assert these truths. [But you will not find the words “sovereign” or “sovereignty” in the King James Bible (to which we will look exclusively)].


Let the heavens be glad, and let the earth rejoice: and let men say among the nations, The LORD reigneth. (1 Chron 16:31)

For God is the King of all the earth: sing ye praises with understanding. God reigneth over the heathen: God sitteth upon the throne of his holiness. (Ps 47:7,8)

The LORD reigneth, he is clothed with majesty; the LORD is clothed with strength, wherewith he hath girded himself: the world also is stablished, that it cannot be moved. Thy throne is established of old: thou art from everlasting. (Ps 93:1,2)

Say among the heathen that the LORD reigneth: the world also shall be established that it shall not be moved: he shall judge the people righteously. (Ps 96:10)

The LORD reigneth; let the earth rejoice; let the multitude of isles be glad thereof For thou, LORD, art high above all the earth: thou art exalted far above all gods.(Ps 97:1,9)

The LORD reigneth; let the people tremble: he sitteth between the cherubims; let the earth be moved. (Ps 99:1)
But our God is in the heavens: he hath done whatsoever he hath pleased. (Ps 115:3)


Whatsoever the LORD pleased, that did he in heaven, and in earth, in the seas, and all deep places. (Ps 135:6)

This matter is by the decree of the watchers, and the demand by the word of the holy ones: to the intent that the living may know that the most High ruleth in the kingdom of men, and giveth it to whomsoever he will, and setteth up over it the basest of men. (Dan 4:17)

And I heard as it were the voice of a great multitude, and as the voice of many waters, and as the voice of mighty thunderings, saying, Alleluia: for the Lord God omnipotent reigneth.(Rev 19:6)

THE GRACE OF GOD
While the sovereignty of God is unquestionable, the grace of God is also evident throughout all Scripture. And it is only, and purely, by the grace of God that sinners are saved and given the gift of eternal life. Also, the grace of God is available to all mankind, as we see in Titus 2:11; 3:4-7:

For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men… But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared, Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour; That being justified by his grace, we should be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life.

But you will never find the sovereignty of God in the same passages which speak of the grace of God. God’s grace extends to all men – all humanity – for the salvation of all. And the sole basis for the offer of salvation is the finished work of Christ in His death, burial, and resurrection. That is central to “the Gospel of the Grace of God”: But none of these things move me, neither count I my life dear unto myself, so that I might finish my course with joy, and the ministry, which I have received of the Lord Jesus, to testify the gospel of the grace of God. (Acts 20:24)

But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. (Rom 5:15)

Moreover, brethren, we do you to wit [know] of the grace of God bestowed on the churches of Macedonia; (2 Cor 8:1)

For the hope which is laid up for you in heaven, whereof ye heard before in the word of the truth of the gospel; Which is come unto you, as it is in all the world; and bringeth forth fruit, as it doth also in you, since the day ye heard of it, and knew the grace of God in truth: (Col 1:5,6)

But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the sufferiGrace ng of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man. (Heb 2:9)

So we see in all these verses that the sovereignty of God does not enter the picture when the grace of God is presented. Furthermore, it is purely by the grace of God that Christ “tasted death for every man”. Meaning that when Christ died on the cross, He took all the sins of the world upon Himself, and paid the full penalty for those sins. Therefore He is called “the Lamb of God which taketh away the sin of the world” (John 1:29). As a result God offers the gift of eternal life freely to those who believe on the Lord Jesus Christ. And no one is excluded, unless they exclude themselves.
Sovereign means "not under anyone else's command." Yes, God is sovereign in the word's actual sense. Sovereign does not mean "makes everything in one's realm happen in perfect conformity to one's will." So, God is not sovereign in the aberrant Calvinistic sense.

Grace is "some gift offered that was not owed to or earned by the one offered the gift."

Can someone who is under no one else's command offer someone a gift they have neither earned nor are owed? Yes.

So, the answer to the Thread title is "No. The sovereignty of God does not nullify the grace of God."

Are you asking whether Calvinist "sovereignty", a.k.a. exhaustive divine determinism, nullifies the grace of God?
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
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#3
Are you asking whether Calvinist "sovereignty", a.k.a. exhaustive divine determinism, nullifies the grace of God?
That is certainly the thought. Calvinists believe that God sovereignly elects some for salvation. Here is an example from C.H. Spurgeon:
"Charles Spurgeon tenaciously held to the doctrine of unconditional election. By necessity, this biblical truth flows from belief in human depravity. Because the will of man is utterly dead and cannot choose God, God must exercise His sovereign will to save. Out of the mass of fallen humanity, God made an eternal, distinguishing choice. Before the foundation of the world, He determined whom He would save. Spurgeon contended that were it not for God’s choice of His elect, none would be saved."
https://www.ligonier.org/learn/articles/charles-spurgeon-calvinism-unconditional-election

If this were true then:
1. All mankind would be saved, since God desires the salvation of all men. the Bible is very clear about that.
2. If there were true then there would be no need for the Gospel, since the Gospel demands a response from those who hear it.
3. If this were true then Christ would not have died for the sins of the whole world, but only for the so-called "elect".
4. When Spurgeon preached the Gospel, he assumed that all his hearers could be saved, and also urged all his hearers to respond to the Gospel, thus nullifying his belief in divine election for salvation. Here is one example: 'Go not forth from this place to talk with idle gossip on thy way home. Go not forth to forget what manner of man thou art. But hasten to thy home; seek thy chamber; shut to the door; fall on thy face by thy bedside; confess thy sin; cry unto Jesus, tell him thou art a wretch undone without his sovereign grace, tell him thou has heard this morning that he came to save sinners, and that the thought of such a love as that hath made thee lay down the weapons of thy rebellion, and that thou art desirous to be his. There on thy face plead with him, and say unto him, "Lord save me, or I perish."'
https://www.blueletterbible.org/Comm/spurgeon_charles/sermons/0184.cfm
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
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#4
That is certainly the thought. Calvinists believe that God sovereignly elects some for salvation. Here is an example from C.H. Spurgeon:
"Charles Spurgeon tenaciously held to the doctrine of unconditional election. By necessity, this biblical truth flows from belief in human depravity. Because the will of man is utterly dead and cannot choose God, God must exercise His sovereign will to save. Out of the mass of fallen humanity, God made an eternal, distinguishing choice. Before the foundation of the world, He determined whom He would save. Spurgeon contended that were it not for God’s choice of His elect, none would be saved."
https://www.ligonier.org/learn/articles/charles-spurgeon-calvinism-unconditional-election

If this were true then:
1. All mankind would be saved, since God desires the salvation of all men. the Bible is very clear about that.
2. If there were true then there would be no need for the Gospel, since the Gospel demands a response from those who hear it.
3. If this were true then Christ would not have died for the sins of the whole world, but only for the so-called "elect".
4. When Spurgeon preached the Gospel, he assumed that all his hearers could be saved, and also urged all his hearers to respond to the Gospel, thus nullifying his belief in divine election for salvation. Here is one example: 'Go not forth from this place to talk with idle gossip on thy way home. Go not forth to forget what manner of man thou art. But hasten to thy home; seek thy chamber; shut to the door; fall on thy face by thy bedside; confess thy sin; cry unto Jesus, tell him thou art a wretch undone without his sovereign grace, tell him thou has heard this morning that he came to save sinners, and that the thought of such a love as that hath made thee lay down the weapons of thy rebellion, and that thou art desirous to be his. There on thy face plead with him, and say unto him, "Lord save me, or I perish."'
https://www.blueletterbible.org/Comm/spurgeon_charles/sermons/0184.cfm
All of your arguments don't of necessity follow. For example, God has chosen to use the foolishness of preaching to save people. So whether election is true or not, the gospel needs to be preached.
Also, whether election is true or not, Spurgeon isn't omniscient or sovereign. He would have no way of knowing if someone was elect or not. So he would naturally exhort all his hearers to plead with God for salvation.
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
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#5
All of your arguments don't of necessity follow. For example, God has chosen to use the foolishness of preaching to save people. So whether election is true or not, the gospel needs to be preached.
Are all babies who have never heard and understood the gospel damned, then, if God has chosen to use the foolishness of preaching to save them? And "how can they believe unless they hear?"
If children can be saved without being preached to, why can't adults also be saved without being preached to? If God regenerates without our faith, why is preaching necessary at all?
 

Cameron143

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Mar 1, 2022
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#6
Are all babies who have never heard and understood the gospel damned, then, if God has chosen to use the foolishness of preaching to save them? And "how can they believe unless they hear?"
If children can be saved without being preached to, why can't adults also be saved without being preached to? If God regenerates without our faith, why is preaching necessary at all?
God isn't restricted in the way He saves. But His general means is through preaching. I was merely pointing out inconsistencies in a particular line of reasoning.
 

PaulThomson

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Oct 29, 2023
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#7
God isn't restricted in the way He saves. But His general means is through preaching. I was merely pointing out inconsistencies in a particular line of reasoning.
Do you recognise your own inconsistency in your particular line of reasoning? You cannot logically claim that preaching the gospel is NECESSARY to save people, and the opposite, that God does not NEED the agency of men to save men, but can unilaterally save whoever He wants to save regardless of what a person does or does not do.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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#8
All of your arguments don't of necessity follow. For example, God has chosen to use the foolishness of preaching to save people. So whether election is true or not, the gospel needs to be preached.
Also, whether election is true or not, Spurgeon isn't omniscient or sovereign. He would have no way of knowing if someone was elect or not. So he would naturally exhort all his hearers to plead with God for salvation.
Those are just lame excuses to defend Calvinism. If God elects someone to be saved, it means that that person does not have to respond to the Gospel through the conviction of the Holy Spirit.

In fact Calvinists claim that an UNSAVED person receives the Holy Spirit in order to be saved. Which is the reverse of what the Bible teaches. The Westminster Confession of Faith says: "This effectual call is of God's free and special grace alone, not from anything at all foreseen in man, who is altogether passive therein, until, being quickened and renewed by the Holy Spirit, he is thereby enabled to answer this call, and to embrace the grace offered and conveyed in it." This flies in the face of Acts 2:38.

Also for Spurgeon (or anyone of his persuasion) to preach as though every hearer could respond to his preaching and be saved is frankly dishonest. Nowhere did he say that God will elect only some of you for salvation. He left the impression that if all would turn to Christ all would be saved, since he appealed to all.

In any event anyone who denies that God would have ALL men to be saved, and anyone who denies that Christ died for the sins of the whole world is already preaching a false gospel -- as Paul says "another gospel" and "another Jesus".
 

Cameron143

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Mar 1, 2022
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#9
Do you recognise your own inconsistency in your particular line of reasoning? You cannot logically claim that preaching the gospel is NECESSARY to save people, and the opposite, that God does not NEED the agency of men to save men, but can unilaterally save whoever He wants to save regardless of what a person does or does not do.
That's not what I'm saying at all. I never said the preaching of the gospel is necessary. I said God has chosen the gospel as the primary means of providing hearing to those who believe...Romans 10:17. But God isn't hamstrung by your limited imagination. John the Baptist was saved in the womb. I don't know what agency was employed by God to produce faith in him. It seems as though God did unilaterally save him.
So, for the second time...God can work in prescribed way or any other way He chooses to effect salvation. He is not limited or under any compunction to conform to anything other than that which His nature compels of Him. Since there is no limiting attribute of God to keep Him from saving people, He can save them any way He desires, even if He generally subscribes to a particular manner.
 

Cameron143

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#10
Those are just lame excuses to defend Calvinism. If God elects someone to be saved, it means that that person does not have to respond to the Gospel through the conviction of the Holy Spirit.

In fact Calvinists claim that an UNSAVED person receives the Holy Spirit in order to be saved. Which is the reverse of what the Bible teaches. The Westminster Confession of Faith says: "This effectual call is of God's free and special grace alone, not from anything at all foreseen in man, who is altogether passive therein, until, being quickened and renewed by the Holy Spirit, he is thereby enabled to answer this call, and to embrace the grace offered and conveyed in it." This flies in the face of Acts 2:38.

Also for Spurgeon (or anyone of his persuasion) to preach as though every hearer could respond to his preaching and be saved is frankly dishonest. Nowhere did he say that God will elect only some of you for salvation. He left the impression that if all would turn to Christ all would be saved, since he appealed to all.

In any event anyone who denies that God would have ALL men to be saved, and anyone who denies that Christ died for the sins of the whole world is already preaching a false gospel -- as Paul says "another gospel" and "another Jesus".
I'm not defending Calvinism. I was merely pointing out the inconsistencies in your argument.
And regardless of what you may believe concerning Spurgeon, he was greatly used of God to harvest souls.
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
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#11
That's not what I'm saying at all. I never said the preaching of the gospel is necessary. I said God has chosen the gospel as the primary means of providing hearing to those who believe...Romans 10:17. But God isn't hamstrung by your limited imagination. John the Baptist was saved in the womb. I don't know what agency was employed by God to produce faith in him. It seems as though God did unilaterally save him.
So, for the second time...God can work in prescribed way or any other way He chooses to effect salvation. He is not limited or under any compunction to conform to anything other than that which His nature compels of Him. Since there is no limiting attribute of God to keep Him from saving people, He can save them any way He desires, even if He generally subscribes to a particular manner.
What you said was:
All of your arguments don't of necessity follow. For example, God has chosen to use the foolishness of preaching to save people. So whether election is true or not, the gospel needs to be preached.
You did not say, "God has chosen the gospel as the primary means of providing hearing to those who believe."

If you communicated badly, then correct your inaccurate delivery. But don't gaslight people by inventing a false narrative andinsisting that your invention is the truth.
 

PaulThomson

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Oct 29, 2023
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#12
And regardless of what you may believe concerning Spurgeon, he was greatly used of God to harvest souls.
Being used by God, even "greatly used of God" says nothing about how much of what one says and does is accurate gospel. many will say in that day, "Did we not do all kinds of mighty works in your name" but he will deny them. Judas Iscariot is a case in point.
 

Cameron143

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#13
What you said was:


You did not say, "God has chosen the gospel as the primary means of providing hearing to those who believe."

If you communicated badly, then correct your inaccurate delivery. But don't gaslight people by inventing a false narrative andinsisting that your invention is the truth.
I already did. And my communication, in its original language and intent was designed to make a particular point, and not to establish doctrine. You took my words and applied them to another issue, and assumed a belief on my part. I attempted to say as much before, but you continue to construe my original intention. I find this odd as even the individual I was actually addressing doesn't make the claims you do.
So yes, it's God's primary way to effect salvation through preaching. But when I'm referring to a preacher concerning salvation, I don't find it necessary to qualify my answer by the exception.
It's not a communication error. It's you making an error concerning intent. That's more of a reading comprehension problem at best; argumentative or hypercritical at the extreme.
Had I anticipated the possibility of such a response I probably would have answered differently. But God was gracious to you. Receive His grace.
 

Cameron143

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#14
Being used by God, even "greatly used of God" says nothing about how much of what one says and does is accurate gospel. many will say in that day, "Did we not do all kinds of mighty works in your name" but he will deny them. Judas Iscariot is a case in point.
Again, you assume things into my statement. It's not that what you are saying is false, they are addressing a different issue. If you desire to simply find fault, I have plenty of those. You haven't even scratched the surface. But don't just share my fault, commit yourself to a servant's role and really help.
 

JohnDB

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Jan 16, 2021
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#15
So God only has Conscripted Soldiers?

Kinda like the Borg in a Star Trek movie?
 

ForestGreenCook

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Jul 8, 2018
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#16
Are all babies who have never heard and understood the gospel damned, then, if God has chosen to use the foolishness of preaching to save them? And "how can they believe unless they hear?"
If children can be saved without being preached to, why can't adults also be saved without being preached to? If God regenerates without our faith, why is preaching necessary at all?
Understanding the gospel (Christ's doctrine) is revealed, by the indwelling of the Holy Spirit, to the remnant of the house of Jacob/Israel (spiritual Israel).

The house of Jacob/Israel turned away from God and began to worship idols. God responded by blinding their eyes to understand the doctrine of Christ. The scriptures depicts them as "the lost sheep of the house of Jacob/Israel".

They are still God's elect, and have the promise of an eternal inheritance, but are ignorant to a knowledge of the doctrine of Christ. God instructs the remnant of the house of Jacob/Israel to teach the lost sheep of the house of Jacob/Israel that they may be saved (delivered) not eternally, but from their ignorance.

Salvation, according to Strong's concordance, is a deliverance. God's elect, spiritual Israel, (those that God gave to his Son - John 6:37), have been redeemed from their sins, and given the promised of an eternal inheritance, by Christ's death on the cross.

Preaching, hearing God's word, and believing, saves (delivers) God's elect people, from their ignorance of a knowledge of the truth.

Those people, who are not of the elect, when they are born into this world, prosper and live to be of an old age, therefore, babies who die in their youth are of the elect of God.

Rightly dividing the word of God includes rightly dividing eternal deliverance from the deliverance's that God's born again elect receive as they sojourn here on earth.
 

ForestGreenCook

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Jul 8, 2018
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#17
I'm not defending Calvinism. I was merely pointing out the inconsistencies in your argument.
And regardless of what you may believe concerning Spurgeon, he was greatly used of God to harvest souls.
If you mean "to harvest souls eternally" could you give me a scripture to affirm that?
 

Cameron143

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#18
If you mean "to harvest souls eternally" could you give me a scripture to affirm that?
It was simply a phrase to say he was used of God to preach the gospel with attending results. It wasn't meant to be construed as a doctrinal statement but merely to employ descriptive language.
Has no one had coffee yet?
 

ForestGreenCook

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#19
Those are just lame excuses to defend Calvinism. If God elects someone to be saved, it means that that person does not have to respond to the Gospel through the conviction of the Holy Spirit.

In fact Calvinists claim that an UNSAVED person receives the Holy Spirit in order to be saved. Which is the reverse of what the Bible teaches. The Westminster Confession of Faith says: "This effectual call is of God's free and special grace alone, not from anything at all foreseen in man, who is altogether passive therein, until, being quickened and renewed by the Holy Spirit, he is thereby enabled to answer this call, and to embrace the grace offered and conveyed in it." This flies in the face of Acts 2:38.

Also for Spurgeon (or anyone of his persuasion) to preach as though every hearer could respond to his preaching and be saved is frankly dishonest. Nowhere did he say that God will elect only some of you for salvation. He left the impression that if all would turn to Christ all would be saved, since he appealed to all.

In any event anyone who denies that God would have ALL men to be saved, and anyone who denies that Christ died for the sins of the whole world is already preaching a false gospel -- as Paul says "another gospel" and "another Jesus".

You, along with most people, are miss -interpreting Acts 2:38.

Acts 2:37 reveals the fact that these Jews had already been born again of the indwelling of the Holy Spirit. During the process of God's grace, in quickening a person to the new spiritual life, He changes their heart of stone to a soft fleshy heart that can be "pricked" to feel spiritual guilt, (Ezk 11:19), unlike those people in Acts 7:54 whose heart of stone, after hearing Stephen preach the same sermon that Peter preached in Acts 2, reacted very differently than those in Acts 2:37,

I believe that I have explained your false interpretation of the "ALL MEN" scriptures. If you have forgotten, I would be willing to revive your memory.
 

ForestGreenCook

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#20
It was simply a phrase to say he was used of God to preach the gospel with attending results. It wasn't meant to be construed as a doctrinal statement but merely to employ descriptive language.
Has no one had coffee yet?
Yes, I had my coffee at five o'clock this morning, but thanks for asking. I think it is very important, as to what message we present in the wording of our explanations.

I am in agreement with most of your posts, but I do not think that you understand the difference in the salvation scriptures, in that there is only one eternal salvation (deliverance), that was finished by Jesus on the cross, and there are many salvation (deliverance) scriptures that pertain to deliverance's that the born again elect experience as they sojourn here on earth. If you do understand this, then I apologize.