The Error of KJV-Onlyism

But it is not stated, therefore it's your interpretation. Given that, it carries no more weight than any other interpretation.

Again, discernment is not the standard. The Bible is the standard ultimately. To say that discernment is the standard is Spiritism or the New Age. God has written down His word for us to believe in so that we can be saved and do His will. Yes, one needs to have the Spirit, but this is if we believe and obey His Words.

Acts 5:32
"And we are his witnesses of these things; and so is also the Holy Ghost, whom God hath given to them that obey him."

How do we obey God?
By keeping His words as found in the Bible and not by some New Age thinking or prayer, or vision or dream, or by some voice talking to us, etcetera.

Who killed Goliath according to the NASB and most other new versions? I thought David killed Goliath.

2 Samuel 21:19 And there was war with the Philistines again at Gob, and Elhanan the son of Jaare-oregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath the Gittite, the shaft of whose spear was like a weaver’s beam.

Who killed Goliath according to the NASB and most other new versions? I thought David killed Goliath.

2 Samuel 21:19 And there was war with the Philistines again at Gob, and Elhanan the son of Jaare-oregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath the Gittite, the shaft of whose spear was like a weaver’s beam.

This is what you do when you don't have a response; you change the subject. You've done it many times, and it doesn't look good on you. Step up and follow the discussion by responding to the most recent posts to you.

Well your paraphrase is not faulty, but something else which should have been brought out is the correspondence between "Yea, hath God said...?" (Satan) and the same attitude of the Higher and Lower (or textual) critics. They do not really believe in the divine inspiration and preservation of the Word of God, and that God says what He means, and means what He says. And that has led to a whole raft of corrupt modern versions, which have changed the truth of God into a lie. Adding and subtracting from Scripture is forbidden, but the modern translators did not get that message.

Who killed Goliath according to the modern versions?

I'm not interested in your rabbit trail. Follow the existing discussion, or step out.

As far as I understand it, God never said, "thy , thou , or thee anything" How did the KJV obtain the liberties to change scripture to those words?

As far as I understand it, God never said, "thy , thou , or thee anything" How did the KJV obtain the liberties to change scripture to those words?

It makes the translation precise in the English language.

What a totally SILLY comment. It needs no answer. As a matter of fact those words accurately reflect what is in Scripture. "You" is used when there are more than one person being addressed.

And how should the modern commoner know this to be true?

By trying to understand the valid reason for the distinction.

Shall I start a new thread? The Error of Believing the Modern Versions?

What a totally SILLY comment. It needs no answer. As a matter of fact those words accurately reflect what is in Scripture. "You" is used when there is more than one person being addressed.

Back in your post #1461, you stated, I quote:


First, by your words above, you said nothing about how that is what Erasmus thought.
Second, how would you know what he thought by the statement you made in post #1461?
Do you have a Time Machine and a mind reader device?

Do you say things without thinking them first? How does that work out for you?

Come to think of it... going by the fact that some of what you postulate is not well thought out...

Perhaps you do say things without thinking them first .

No, while these two words may have meant the same thing in the past (Canon Law - 16th century), the words "promiscuous" and "prostitute" used today do not have the same meaning.

"Promiscuous" is an adjective that generally describes a person's behavior or lifestyle characterized by engaging in sexual activity with multiple partners without commitment or exclusivity. It is a more general term and doesn't specifically imply the exchange of money for sexual services.

"Prostitute," on the other hand, refers to a person who engages in sexual activity in exchange for money or goods. It specifically involves a commercial transaction for sexual services.

While both terms involve sexual activity, "promiscuous" is a broader term that doesn't necessarily involve any financial transaction, while "prostitute" is specifically linked to the exchange of money for sexual services.

Source:
ChatGPT (A database software program)

Just look at the CollinsDictionary, or current Dictionaries and the meanings are not interchangeable in definitions.

Generally in the Bible, we let the Bible interpret the meaning of a word when possible. In Genesis 38, we get a definition of both "harlot" and "whoredom" in the context that it can refer to prostitution.

Genesis 38:15-18
15 "When Judah saw her, he thought her to be an harlot; because she had covered her face.
16 And he turned unto her by the way, and said, Go to, I pray thee, let me come in unto thee; (for he knew not that she was his daughter in law.) And she said, What wilt thou give me, that thou mayest come in unto me?
17 And he said, I will send thee a kid from the flock. And she said, Wilt thou give me a pledge, till thou send it?
18 And he said, What pledge shall I give thee? And she said, Thy signet, and thy bracelets, and thy staff that is in thine hand. And he gave it her, and came in unto her, and she conceived by him."

But there are other cases where the word "whoredom" or "whore" is referred to as idolatry / spiritual idolatry (See: Ezekiel 16:17) (Revelation 17:1).

The problem with Modern Textual Critics, select Modern Bibles, and the majority of Christianity on this point is that they believe God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. Some may take that to mean as you say, and others take that to mean prostitute as we understand that word today. So many today believe that God was telling Hosea to marry a practicing prostitute who was engaging in sex for money.

Yet, the King James Bible says, "Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD." (Hosea 1:2).

Obviously the land is referring to people here and thus the people have committed great whoredom departing from the LORD. This is idolatry. The word "idols" is mentioned in Hosea chapter 4. The context is spiritual idolatry with idols. The whole land was not engaged in selling their bodies for sex.

Yes, Gomer later became a prostitute (engaging in sex for money) but this was not before she was married to Hosea.

Anyway, this is the end of this conversation on the point involving Hosea and Gomer. If you disagree, you are free to believe as you wish. I am not going to debate this point because it is not the only link in the chain that defends the King James Bible as the Word of God.

Added note: Historically, the word "prostitute" or "prostitution" has been used for sex in the exchange of money. So while there was a canon law establishing a particular meaning for these two words being synonymous at the beginning of history (involving these words), it simply never took hold as having that meaning for the majority of history. It definitely does not have that meaning today.