The Error of KJV-Onlyism

But the copyists were not inspired. Big difference.

Easter is not a pagan word.
Per The Shorter Oxford Dictionary pp. 624, 1524.

Easter- a festival of Christian Church commemorating the resurrection of Christ, and corresponding to the Jewish Passover.

Passover- 1.The name of Jewish feast, held on the evening on the fourteenth day of the first month Nissan, commemorative to the ‘passing over’ of the houses of the Israelites when the Egyptians were smitten with the loss of their firstborn 2. contextually, the Paschal Lamb figuratively applied to Christ 1 Cor. 5:7



Basically, Easter is the same as Passover in a modern Greek, in the Dictionary, Easter is a commemorative event of the resurrection of our Lord Jesus. The event is the epitome of his death and his burial which Christ as the lamb of God became the Passover lamb, hence closely connected to the Passover event.

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https://en.glosbe.com/en/el/Easter

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https://en.glosbe.com/en/el/Passover
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Timeline would date 1451BC for the Jewish Passover

https://amazingbibletimeline.com/blog/old-testament-timeline-passover/

Timeline would date 580BCE probably for the Eostre, but if you have the other timeline then I can change my gathered information.

https://www.sctimes.com/story/opini...and-cultural-appropriation-eostre/7317930001/

Timeline for the death of “Paschal/Passover Lamb”, the probable would be April 3, 33 AD a few hours before the beginning of Passover Day.

https://penelope.uchicago.edu/~grout/encyclopaedia_romana/calendar/jesus.html#:~:text=Jesus died, therefore, on Friday,Passover day and the Sabbath.

So, the Jewish Passover is much celebrated long before what Bede said in his writings. Remember, the Hebrew Pesach always correspond to Christ so the celebration of Pascha is not unchristian as per Oxford and other Dictionary. And the Dictionaries are saying that Easter is the resurrection of Christ



The book of Acts was written probably 64-68 AD where the word Easter coined by William Tyndale in his New Testament (1525 ) who also later invented the English word “Passover”.

https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Passover#:~:text=Coined by William Tyndale (c,Hebrew פֶּסַח‎ (pésach).

This is to note that William Tyndale is brilliant in a way he used the English word “Easter”/ “Ester” connected to the Jewish Passover and not association to pagan festival. He knows that the very sense is of the resurrection of Christ. Early English Dictionaries refers Easter is the resurrection of Christ. John Palsgrave, Conrad Gesner. Previous Dictionaries offer Pascha, pasca means Easter.

John Palsgrave, Lesclarcissement de la Langue Francoyse (1530)

Easter a hye feestla resurrection nostre seignevr s fe, pasques fe.



Conrad Gesner, Abecedarium Anglico-latinum (1552)

Resurrection of the Lord called Easter.



Thomas Elyot, The Dictionary of Sir Thomas Elyot (1538)

Pascha,Easter.



Thomas Elyot, Bibliotheca Eliotae (1542)

Pasca, Easter

No doubt the modern translations change stuff and leave stuff out.

I don't dispute that which is why I rarely use any quotes from the modern translation

Yep.... the KJV is the best translation errors and all!

Only if one thinks words are not important to God. Fornication is different than the new version, "sexual immorality."

When Modern Christians today think fornication is not a problem today, I would say it is not a coincidence they believe that way because their own Bible either does not have that word or it is water-downed.

In other words, if you trust the wrong Bible entirely, it will lead you down the wrong path.

Westcott and Hort, together with their friend Stanley, were instrumental in getting the Unitarian Christ-rejecter George Vance Smith on the ERV translation committee, and when an outcry was made by Anglican ministers against the Unitarian’s presence on the committee, the three men threatened to resign unless he remained. Amos 3:3 says, “Can two walk together, except they be agreed?”

So obviously they chose manuscripts that align with their low regard of the deity of Christ (i.e., 1 John 5:7). Here is one of their commentaries.

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So again, they favored corrupted manuscripts that aligned with their false beliefs.

All Scripture is given by inspiration of God (2 Timothy 3:16). So if an apostle called something Scripture, it was inspired.

Nice job. It actually means her desire is to have authority over her husband. It is the source of much marital dissension.

But the copyists were not inspired. Big difference.

If you're okay with your wife committing sexual immorality, you go right ahead.

When Psalms 12:6 refers to the words of the Lord being purified seven times, I believe it is also prophetic.

My Proposed List of the Seven Purifications of the KJB:

1. The 1629 Cambridge
2. The 1638 Cambridge (authored by the King).
3. The Paris 1762 Cambridge
4. The Blayney 1769 Oxford (Authorized Version) (Today this is the 1893 or 1894 Oxford printed editions)
5. Apocrypha Removed in KJB officially in 1885
6. The Updated Public Based Pure Cambridge (used between the 1920s and 1985)
7. The Pure Cambridge (A.W. Pollard) (circa 1914-1918) (WW2) (The KJV Cambridge used today).

I believe that God is in control even over the roll of the dice.
So any small differences between the MAJOR six editions (due to printing errors) could also potentially be true.
(Note: One purification was the removal of the Apocrypha in 1885 by the Church of England ).
We learn in Jeremiah that God can edit His own Word. When the King cut up and burned the scroll in the fire, God told Jeremiah to make another scroll and add many like words to it.
There are approximately 12 subtle or small differences between the 6 major KJB editions to my knowledge.
Granted, there are things that needed to be filtered out of the first KJB 1611 edition like the Apocrypha, the marginal notes, the Greek pagan pictures, and stuff. But the hand written master copy was the reflection of the true Word all along. I believe it was not until the Pure Cambridge Edition (circa 1900) when the printing process and standardization of spelling and grammar whereby we had a Word that was finally purified the seventh time.

Others like Matthew Verschuur at BibleProtector.com, and John M Asquith at PureCambridgeText.com have different lists.

Bible Protector’s List of the Seven Purifications in Psalms 12:6.

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PureCambridgeText.com website offers a different list of the seven purified KJBs, and he offers some great reasons why, although I do not agree entirely with his list.

1. The 1629 Cambridge
2. The 1638 Cambridge (authored by the King).
3. The Paris 1762 Cambridge
4. The Blayney 1769 Oxford
5. The Scrivener 1873 Cambridge Paragraph
6. The Pure Cambridge (A.W. Pollard) (circa 1914-1918)
7. The Updated Public Based Pure Cambridge (used between the 1920s and 1985).

The changes to actual words and their meaning are very minute. But again, this was the fixing of printing errors when see that the words were different.

Two unmarried people may think they can have sex as long as it’s not immoral sex. Morality is subjective. Look around today.

Two unmarried people may think they can have sex as long as it’s not immoral sex. Morality is subjective. Look around today.

The words are inspire…scripture is given by inspiration of God.

Yes, and the KJ versions changed words over time.

Non-Christians aren't looking to a 16th-century publication of the Anglican Church for moral guidance anyway, so why would it concern you? Christians, on the other hand, will find proper guidance in any decent translation of the Bible.

Yes, and the KJ versions changed words over time.

Examples please…changes as in spelling?

You have a very serious problem!

Add "IMAGINARY" before problem. It is you has the real problem. I have indeed pointed out some flaws in the KJB, but by and large that makes no difference to the excellency of this translation. On the other hand the version you use is THOROUGHLY CORRUPT. So it is you who has the problem.