4. There can be only one true version of God's word, or none. There cannot be multiple versions of God's word that contain different words and even different truths. God is not the author of confusion.
Then do not accuse Him of originating the KJV-onlyism doctrine. And that is a big problem with the doctrine, isn't it? It isn't taught in scripture. The apostles didn't teach it. It isn't part of the 'faith once delivered to the saints.'
Your line of reasoning here is embarrassing. If had I made it, I would be embarrassed. The KJV was translated from Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic texts. Did those texts suddenly become uninspired because King James had a committee the Bible translated (again) into English? Did their translating the Bible make exact quotes from Jeremiah, the apostles, or the Lord Himself in the actual languages in which they were spoken or written not 'the word of God.'
You are also makinjg a mistake in just assuming the "God's word" exactly equals the Bible. The word was created through the Logos. The Logos was made flesh. Paul preached the word of God to the Thessalonians. Plugging in 'Bible' or 'KJV Bible' into any of the scriptures that speak of these things.
Btw, I originally called this thread The Idiocy of KJV-Onlyism, but a moderator must have toned the title down.
The KJV is a TRANSLATION of the Bible. It claims to be a translation. Read the dedication to the King, which also speaks positively about previous translations.
5. Multiple versions has caused confusion and dissension among the brethren (devil's plan), and disbelief among non-believers.
No, reasonably minded people, at least if they are a bit educated, can deal with the fact that there are different translations and can benefit from them. KJV-onlyist beliefs can lead to people being divisive, if they are willing to divide a church over it. If a KJV-onlyist went to a church that used various translations wisely, some of the people church might just think him a bit odd, but if he isn't divisive over it, it wouldn't need to be divisive.
6. Greek text? Where? Do we have the original Greek text? Nope.
7. God has always preserved his word throughout the course of human history. He made it available completed in one book in the KJV.
Why would you want to add the idea in that last sentence to 'the faith once delivered to the saints'? Don't you see the danger of adding man-made doctrines to the Christian faith, especially if the doctrine is nonsense, doesn't hold water, doesn't make sense, and people divide over it.
There is no reason to be KJV-onlyist unless you've been taught that as if it were a part of the gospel and develop an attachment to it, being KJV-onlyist becomes a part of your identity, or something like that. It doesn't make sense.
I haven't even heard of a KJV onlyist becoming one by reason of a false prophet prophesying that the KJV is inspired. Without God revealing such a doctrine, why would you believe it?
And what about Dayak villagers, or Lithuanians, or Amazonian tribes people who don't speak English? Do they not get to have a Bible that they can hold ___in their hand__ that is the word of God? Does it have to be in some language they don't understand? But again, reading 'KJV Bible' or even 'Bible' into the phrase 'word of God' in scripture is going to lead you to some bad interpretations. We learn the word of God from reading the scripture, but the phrase doesn't mean 'the 66 books of the Bible' in all contexts if any at all.
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