I think the confusion comes in, when I look at the KJV (at BLB), and it says " ' Jesus'...
983 occurrences in the KJV," I assume that means
983x that THAT word is used
in the KJV... so the "count"
for the KJV (at least according to BLB)
is NOT including:
--Matt27:
16,
17 (where IN THE KJV "Jesus" is not also before "Barabbas," as it is in some other versions [NIV]) -
https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/search.cfm?Criteria=jesus&t=KJV#s=s_primary_0_4;
nor
--Luke 3:
29 -
[scroll down] https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/search.cfm?Criteria=jesus&t=KJV#s=s_primary_0_6 ;
(that seems like it would be
another 3x ^ ...
not counted in the KJV totals)
[though it IS used in Col4:11--I did forget about that one--"Jesus surnamed Justus"... and which the kjv
DOES "count" of course... so we could subtract
this one and that (
apparently) still leaves "982x" in the kjv (if BLB is correct)--which still isn't "980" lol]
So that leaves me still perplexed... as I thought this overall "study" was centering on what
the kjv has, rather than other versions??
At BLB, under "Barabbas [G912]," it says this under the heading of "Thayer's":
"Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS G912:
Βαραββᾶς, -ᾶ, ὁ, (from בַּר son, and אַבָּא father, hence, son of a father i. e. of a master [cf.
Matthew 23:9]), a captive robber whom the Jews begged Pilate to release instead of Christ:
Matthew 27:16f (where manuscripts mentioned by Origen, and some other authorities, place Ἰησοῦν before Βαραββᾶν, approved by Fritzsche, DeWette, Meyer, Bleek, others; [cf.
WH Appendix and Tdf.s note at the passage; also
Treg. Printed Text, etc., p. 194f]), [...]"
But again, I thought the idea of this study was to zero in on what
the kjv says (the number of occurrences
in THAT version), and not other ones??
Thoughts?