As in the days of Noah... ALL flesh had CORRUPTED itself

The key here is Mat 24:39 39 and they did not know until the flood came and swept them all away, so will be the coming of the Son of man.

This is talking about a specific time inside tjhe Tribulation. Any believers from the Tribulation are removed at Rev 14:15 at Daniel:s Blessed Day also know as the Day of the Lord leaving behind the unrigheous again to suffer the bowl judgements. As in the days of Noah and Lot will be fullfilled at ths time or else how could all flesh be corrupt????

Made of a woman, not created by a woman. The seed in Mary's womb was placed in her by God. The body of Jesus could not have been in the seed line of man, but by God. The blood of Jesus was God's sinless blood, not of man.

Didn't the angel tell Joseph that Mary conceived by the Holy Spirit? Jesus needs to be related to man, to be our kinsman-redeemer, in order to die in our place for our sins. I believe the sinful nature is passed down by the man, not the woman. Hence Jesus is described as "seed of the woman".

Consider:

Rom 1:3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;
Rom 1:4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead.

Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit but the flesh came from Mary.

That is because Jesus had to be a man from the flesh of a woman an authentic man.

God did not create flesh in Mary but she conceived the flesh.

God was the lifeforce of the man Christ Jesus for a woman cannot bear a child on her own but Mary conceived the flesh.

If Mary did not conceive the flesh, and the flesh did not come from her then Jesus would not be an original man then how could He be the Savior.

And He would not identify with humans because He did not come from them then how can He be the Savior.

He must be an authentic man from authentic flesh from a woman.

That is why the Bible says He was made of the seed of David according to the flesh.

When then Bible says Jesus was made of a woman it means that Mary must of contributed something to Jesus being born, and that is the flesh came from her.

God was born of sinless blood. Mary was not sinless, nor was her bloodline sinless. She was corrupted. The body of Jesus was not corrupted by man's bloodline. His sinless blood is the only acceptable sacrifice.

God was born?

Jesus was born, yes. Born means to be brought forth.

Hebrews 10:5 Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:

That I agree with. Jesus was born, brought forth.

But you said God was born.

Who prepared a body for whom?

God prepared a body for Jesus in the womb of Mary. Mary was merely a vessel to bring forth the body of Jesus.

Ok.. God (one entity, God the Creator of heaven and earth) prepared a body for Jesus (another entity, God's human Messiah).

God did not prepare a body for God.

Mary was Jesus' literal mother. It is through Mary that Jesus Christ is a blood descendant of David.

Yes.

This was a question I asked once that got some people upset. Even though I honestly didn't know the answer.

Was the egg in Mary, that made Jesus human because sin is passed through the father and XY Chromosome, created?

If that were true all women would be sinless.

If sin is inherited which I do not see anywhere in the Bible, how can it not pass to females but only pass to males? What is the explanation for this from those that believe in inherited sin ? Just wondering.

Or at least all in Mary's lineage. But since her lineage goes back to Eve, correct.
Sorry, was reasoning on the fly. Good job.

Romans 5:12-17

New King James Version



All sin is ascribed to Adam. He was responsible for, and over all. That doesn't mean women are sinless.

That was the WHOLE necessity for a virgin birth.

Death in Adam, Life in Christ
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned— 13 (For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. 15 But the free gift is not like the [a]offense. For if by the one man’s offense many died, much more the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to many. 16 And the gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned. For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many [b]offenses resulted in justification. 17 For if by the one man’s [c]offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.)

The first Adam is the "Federal Head" of fallen mankind.
The Last Adam is the Federal Head of redeemed mankind.

We needed a blood transfusion and Christ, the seed of the woman, provided it.

Also it isa legal inheritance issue as much as anything else. God's justice must be satisfied.

God "gave" Eve to Adam as a wife. Adam "lost" her.

Adam's failure is satisfied in Christ Jesus, who "loses none".
Furthermore, Christ is the Husband of both Israel and the Church, neither of whom He loses.

That is why the Israel "curb kickers" are dead wrong. Jesus did NOT "lose" Israel. They will inevitably be redeemed.

Many's sin nature does not even come into play here.

I think the interpretation that makes sense to me is that if sin entered the world through Adam, then salvation can enter the world through God the Father.

The idea that death spread to "all men" does not include women, is just not supported anywhere else in the Bible.