As in the days of Noah... ALL flesh had CORRUPTED itself

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

Omegatime

Well-known member
Apr 29, 2023
1,149
431
83
Pennsylvania
The key here is Mat 24:39 39 and they did not know until the flood came and swept them all away, so will be the coming of the Son of man.

This is talking about a specific time inside tjhe Tribulation. Any believers from the Tribulation are removed at Rev 14:15 at Daniel:s Blessed Day also know as the Day of the Lord leaving behind the unrigheous again to suffer the bowl judgements. As in the days of Noah and Lot will be fullfilled at ths time or else how could all flesh be corrupt????
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,097
3,683
113
The sinless body of Jesus was not placed in Mary but was conceived in Mary having Mary as the mother of that flesh.

The Bible states that Jesus was made of a woman, made under the law.
Made of a woman, not created by a woman. The seed in Mary's womb was placed in her by God. The body of Jesus could not have been in the seed line of man, but by God. The blood of Jesus was God's sinless blood, not of man.
 

Moses_Young

Well-known member
Sep 15, 2019
9,954
5,516
113
Made of a woman, not created by a woman. The seed in Mary's womb was placed in her by God. The body of Jesus could not have been in the seed line of man, but by God. The blood of Jesus was God's sinless blood, not of man.
Didn't the angel tell Joseph that Mary conceived by the Holy Spirit? Jesus needs to be related to man, to be our kinsman-redeemer, in order to die in our place for our sins. I believe the sinful nature is passed down by the man, not the woman. Hence Jesus is described as "seed of the woman".
 

GaryA

Truth, Honesty, Love, Courage
Aug 10, 2019
9,801
4,303
113
mywebsite.us
Made of a woman, not created by a woman. The seed in Mary's womb was placed in her by God. The body of Jesus could not have been in the seed line of man, but by God. The blood of Jesus was God's sinless blood, not of man.
Consider:

 

montana123

Well-known member
Oct 9, 2021
852
286
63
Rom 1:3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;
Rom 1:4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead.

Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit but the flesh came from Mary.

That is because Jesus had to be a man from the flesh of a woman an authentic man.

God did not create flesh in Mary but she conceived the flesh.

God was the lifeforce of the man Christ Jesus for a woman cannot bear a child on her own but Mary conceived the flesh.

If Mary did not conceive the flesh, and the flesh did not come from her then Jesus would not be an original man then how could He be the Savior.

And He would not identify with humans because He did not come from them then how can He be the Savior.

He must be an authentic man from authentic flesh from a woman.

That is why the Bible says He was made of the seed of David according to the flesh.

When then Bible says Jesus was made of a woman it means that Mary must of contributed something to Jesus being born, and that is the flesh came from her.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,097
3,683
113
God was born of sinless blood. Mary was not sinless, nor was her bloodline sinless. She was corrupted. The body of Jesus was not corrupted by man's bloodline. His sinless blood is the only acceptable sacrifice.
 
Dec 21, 2020
1,825
474
83
God was born of sinless blood. Mary was not sinless, nor was her bloodline sinless. She was corrupted. The body of Jesus was not corrupted by man's bloodline. His sinless blood is the only acceptable sacrifice.
God was born?
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,097
3,683
113
Hebrews 10:5 Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:
 
Dec 21, 2020
1,825
474
83
Jesus was born, yes. Born means to be brought forth.
That I agree with. Jesus was born, brought forth.

But you said God was born.

Hebrews 10:5 Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:
Who prepared a body for whom?
 
Dec 21, 2020
1,825
474
83
God prepared a body for Jesus in the womb of Mary.
Ok.. God (one entity, God the Creator of heaven and earth) prepared a body for Jesus (another entity, God's human Messiah).

God did not prepare a body for God.

Mary was merely a vessel to bring forth the body of Jesus.
Mary was Jesus' literal mother. It is through Mary that Jesus Christ is a blood descendant of David.
 

PennEd

Senior Member
Apr 22, 2013
13,572
9,091
113
Mary was Jesus' literal mother. It is through Mary that Jesus Christ is a blood descendant of David.
Yes.

This was a question I asked once that got some people upset. Even though I honestly didn't know the answer.

Was the egg in Mary, that made Jesus human because sin is passed through the father and XY Chromosome, created?
 

ZNP

Well-known member
Sep 14, 2020
36,328
6,613
113
Yes.

This was a question I asked once that got some people upset. Even though I honestly didn't know the answer.

Was the egg in Mary, that made Jesus human because sin is passed through the father and XY Chromosome, created?
If that were true all women would be sinless.
 
Jun 2, 2022
83
41
18
Yes.

This was a question I asked once that got some people upset. Even though I honestly didn't know the answer.

Was the egg in Mary, that made Jesus human because sin is passed through the father and XY Chromosome, created?
If sin is inherited which I do not see anywhere in the Bible, how can it not pass to females but only pass to males? What is the explanation for this from those that believe in inherited sin ? Just wondering.
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
18,893
6,488
113
62
If that were true all women would be sinless.
Or at least all in Mary's lineage. But since her lineage goes back to Eve, correct.
Sorry, was reasoning on the fly. Good job.
 

PennEd

Senior Member
Apr 22, 2013
13,572
9,091
113
If that were true all women would be sinless.
Romans 5:12-17

New King James Version



All sin is ascribed to Adam. He was responsible for, and over all. That doesn't mean women are sinless.

That was the WHOLE necessity for a virgin birth.

Death in Adam, Life in Christ
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned— 13 (For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. 15 But the free gift is not like the [a]offense. For if by the one man’s offense many died, much more the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to many. 16 And the gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned. For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many [b]offenses resulted in justification. 17 For if by the one man’s [c]offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.)
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
22,754
8,265
113
Yes.

This was a question I asked once that got some people upset. Even though I honestly didn't know the answer.

Was the egg in Mary, that made Jesus human because sin is passed through the father and XY Chromosome, created?
The first Adam is the "Federal Head" of fallen mankind.
The Last Adam is the Federal Head of redeemed mankind.

We needed a blood transfusion and Christ, the seed of the woman, provided it.

Also it isa legal inheritance issue as much as anything else. God's justice must be satisfied.
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
22,754
8,265
113
If that were true all women would be sinless.
God "gave" Eve to Adam as a wife. Adam "lost" her.

Adam's failure is satisfied in Christ Jesus, who "loses none".
Furthermore, Christ is the Husband of both Israel and the Church, neither of whom He loses.

That is why the Israel "curb kickers" are dead wrong. Jesus did NOT "lose" Israel. They will inevitably be redeemed.

Many's sin nature does not even come into play here.
 

ZNP

Well-known member
Sep 14, 2020
36,328
6,613
113
Romans 5:12-17

New King James Version



All sin is ascribed to Adam. He was responsible for, and over all. That doesn't mean women are sinless.

That was the WHOLE necessity for a virgin birth.

Death in Adam, Life in Christ
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned— 13 (For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. 15 But the free gift is not like the [a]offense. For if by the one man’s offense many died, much more the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to many. 16 And the gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned. For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many [b]offenses resulted in justification. 17 For if by the one man’s [c]offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.)
I think the interpretation that makes sense to me is that if sin entered the world through Adam, then salvation can enter the world through God the Father.

The idea that death spread to "all men" does not include women, is just not supported anywhere else in the Bible.