Why would Jesus talk about the past as if it was future? What is the abomination of desolation and when did it occur? (The one Jesus is talking about)
This is an "introductory" explanation...
The following is a copy of the OP of this thread:
https://christianchat.com/bible-dis...adeth-let-him-understand.192848/#post-4284938
The intent of this thread is to help Christians better understand a very commonly overlooked and ignored part of Olivet Discourse prophecy.
The parenthetical phrase in the title (found in Matthew 24:15), along with the Mark 13:14 counterpart, are 'key' to understanding the prophecy.
Before we get to what it means (that the Jews understood
very well), I want to remind you of something concerning the three accounts of the Olivet Discourse (Matthew, Mark, Luke).
The three [separate] accounts of the Olivet Discourse are just exactly that - three accounts
of the same event by three different writers.
While it is true that some of the details of the Olivet Discourse event are not recorded exactly the same way or in the exact same words in all three accounts (or, even, recorded in all three accounts - being left out of one or both of the other accounts), it is still [also] true - and does not change - that it is simply-and-only the same one event being recorded by three different writers.
The 'witness' of the event is the same for all three writers:
~ Matthew did not witness anything different than Mark or Luke.
~ Mark did not witness anything different than Matthew or Luke.
~ Luke did not witness anything different than Matthew or Mark.
You may find the following chart containing a table of coordinated verses of scripture to be useful in "visualizing" the continued discussion:
http://mywebsite.us/BibleStudy/Olivet_Discourse.html
If you will note on the chart that each row of the table aligns verses from the three accounts that "go together" in the overall "picture" of the Olivet Discourse.
Examine row 15 very carefully.
Now I will explain the meaning of the parenthetical statements "in reverse" . . . (I think it may make more sense to you this way.)
What Matthew and Mark "encrypted" - along with the 'decryption key' (the parenthetical statement) - Luke "just came out and said it" (simple, straight, and point-blank).
All three writers are saying the exact same thing.
The thing that the Jews understood that [most] modern Bible students do not - is that Matthew and Mark were making an
indirect reference to the Abomination of Desolation and not a literal
direct one.
They made reference to
what Daniel was referring to and not the
event Daniel was referring to.
The
event Daniel was referring to occurred in 167 B.C.
The Jews understood them to be saying, in effect, that "when you see [what happened at the time of the AoD]
begin/start to happen again" . . .
What happened at the time of the AoD that they understood?
Luke wrote it very simply and directly.
If you study the history, you will find that the description that Luke wrote is exactly what happened at the time of the AoD. (the surrounding of Jerusalem by/with armies and the desolation of Jerusalem)
The Matthew and Mark verses in row 15 are NOT actually saying "when you see the event occur (that Daniel is referring to)"; rather, they are saying "when you see [what happened at the time of the event (that Daniel is referring to)] occur" . . .
The actual event time for what Luke wrote is/was ~70 A.D.
What Matthew and Mark wrote is simply a different way of saying the same exact thing Luke said.
All three accounts are saying the exact same thing.
This is what you need to remember.
The explanation is for the purpose of helping you understand
why and
how it is that all three accounts are actually saying the same thing.