What Does It Mean That God Desires All People To Be Saved?

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Mem

Senior Member
Sep 23, 2014
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The question isn't about love, but desire.
If a desire is a want, and unrequited love is a want of the fulfillment of it, then I obviously have wanted of your meaning at some point, even if I give up on obtaining it.
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
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If a desire is a want, and unrequited love is a want of the fulfillment of it, then I obviously have wanted of your meaning at some point, even if I give up on obtaining it.
It started off as such a simple question.
 

Adstar

Senior Member
Jul 24, 2016
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Since God cannot sin, and He alone is good, His every action is thereby good. That doesn't mean it is always beneficial to the recipient in part or full. Often the actions of God bring salvation to one group and death to another. Is He still good? Of course.
God will act to bring His every promise and purpose to fruition. But the end of your logic requires either God to act to the uttermost on someone's behalf and do everything in His power to benefit them, or there is more to goodness than has been considered.
Why does my point require God to act to the Uttermost ?

It does require Him to act in a justifiable manner to a reasonable extent.. Not to an unjustified extent..
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
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Why does my point require God to act to the Uttermost ?

It does require Him to act in a justifiable manner to a reasonable extent.. Not to an unjustified extent..
It doesn't. There were 2 choices.
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
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You gave two choices.. It does not mean God is restricted to your two choices..
Actually, the second choice has a veritable plethora of options, which was my point.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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Your comments are always welcome. I'm never offended by anyone's posts.
The question was born out of a conversation I was having with another.
The gist of it was how could God both desire salvation for all men and at the same time fit some for destruction.
I think the way most people see these things is based more on their understanding of salvation rather than what may actually be true. But sentiment doesn't allow for a thoughtful discussion.
For the record, I don't believe God has to act on a desire. Neither do I think He has made any to destroy. Every person being born besides Jesus is born into a fallen estate and fit themselves for destruction as a matter of living. All that is required for someone to live, die, and go to hell is for God to do nothing.
God created "hell." So He has already done something in this view. He set it up that way, knowing some would fail.
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
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Thanks for taking the time to answer. I'm familiar with your understanding. The question is can God desire something without acting upon it?

He desires the elect to follow his commandments, but does he act upon it? I would say, yes, If the elect do not follow his commandments, he chastens them.

I don't believe that God chastens the non-elect, according to Psalms 73. He only chastens those that he loves. What do you think?
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
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God created "hell." So He has already done something in this view. He set it up that way, knowing some would fail.
Well, He is omniscient. But what I was referring to wasn't God's total inactivity; merely His personal and intimate activity towards an individual.
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
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This gives us a pretty good snapshot of how your mind functions. Please take a break and think things through.

If you would give up on depending on works for your eternal deliverance, your mind function would be the same as mine.
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
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He desires the elect to follow his commandments, but does he act upon it? I would say, yes, If the elect do not follow his commandments, he chastens them.

I don't believe that God chastens the non-elect, according to Psalms 73. He only chastens those that he loves. What do you think?
I agree. But I'm only asking about His desire that all be saved. Is this a real desire? And if so, is God required to act upon it for it to be genuine?
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
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He can certainly desire something without forcing His desire onto it.

2 Peter 3:9
“The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.”

Pretty clear here that God is not going to force anyone to repent. He is waiting for man to choose.

You are getting close, but you are not there yet! Repenting of breaking one of God's spiritual laws is a choice that only the born again can make.

The natural man, according to 1 Cor 2:14 will not, and indeed, cannot make a choice to repent of breaking a spiritual law that he cannot discern, thinking that is foolishness.
 
Dec 21, 2020
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Yes, but that is not one of God's desires.
Why can't Calvinists see that what they believe is a direct denial of scripture?

1 Tim 2:4 ESV who [God] desires all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
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God created "hell." So He has already done something in this view. He set it up that way, knowing some would fail.

Because God knew that all of mankind would fall, is the reason he choose most of them not to fall.
 

oyster67

Senior Member
May 24, 2014
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If you would give up on depending on works for your eternal deliverance, your mind function would be the same as mine.
I have never depended on works for salvation, and my mind definitely does not function like yours.
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
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Why can't Calvinists see that what they believe is a direct denial of scripture?

1 Tim 2:4 ESV who [God] desires all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.

Most of God's well intended children, as yourself, deny the scriptures, by holding onto the old law of works to get them to heaven.

Paul left Timothy in Ephesus to charge some in the church that they teach no other doctrine.

The "we" in 1 Tim 2:2, has reference to the church at Ephesus. Timothy even includes himself in telling them to pray for all men in authority over them that the church may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and honesty.

The "all men" in verse 4, has reference to those men, in the church at Ephesus, who are teaching another doctrine (probably the old law of works), so that they might be saved (delivered) from their ignorance of the gospel. There is a deliverance (salvation here in time) when a born again child of God comes unto a knowledge of the truth.

The letters you have put in red, has reference to those in the church at Ephesus who are teaching another doctrine.