Gal 5: 4, 5 KJV "Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law, ye are fallen from grace. For we through the Spirit wait for the hope of righteousness by faith."
Gal 5:1 Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage.
Gal 5:2 Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing.
Gal 5:3 For I testify again to every man that is circumcised, that he is a debtor to do the whole law.
Gal 5:4 Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.
Gal 5:5 For we through the Spirit wait for the hope of righteousness by faith.
(The following is copied and pasted from 119Ministries transcript on Galatians 5)
At face value, this question may appear rather absurd. Would God have given us
"bondage" and then stated that if we obey this "bondage" we will be blessed, and if we
disobey the "bondage" that we fall under the curse of a second death (Deuteronomy
11:26-29)? Do we find any verse in all of Scripture that says the Law of God is bondage?
No we do not. In fact, we find the opposite.
Once again,
Psalm 119:44-45
I will keep your law continually,
forever and ever,
and I shall walk in a wide place,
for I have sought your precepts.
Psalm 119:47
for I find my delight in your commandments,
which I love.
James 1:25
But the one who looks into the perfect law, the law of liberty, and perseveres,
being no hearer who forgets but a doer who acts, he will be blessed in his doing.
So if the Law of God is freedom, how can we also call it bondage?
Good question. We simply can't, or at least for those who wish to avoid clear
contradiction in their doctrine and theology.
Some people attempt to use this passage to suggest that Paul compared following God’s
Law to being in slavery. Some have even suggested that a person has fallen away from
grace if they continue to follow God’s Law after coming to know Messiah. But that
interpretation is impossible in light of everything we’ve learned about what Paul thought
about the Law. If God’s Law was indeed slavery, why did Paul continue to follow it and
teach it? If circumcision itself caused someone to fall away from Messiah, why did Paul
circumcise Timothy in Acts 16:3? The traditional interpretation just doesn’t fit when
considering all the evidence.
The issue here, once again, is regarding ritual conversion to Judaism and circumcision as
a prerequisite to salvation. That’s what Paul taught against. That works-based salvation
paradigm is what puts people into bondage and causes people to fall away from grace.
The fact that Paul is speaking of works-based salvation is clear in verse 4:
Galatians 5:4
You are severed from Christ, you who would be justified by the law; you have
fallen away from grace.
The problem was that
false teachers were saying that one could be “justified by the law.”
They were teaching that God’s grace could be earned through ritual conversion.
Again,
the problem was a misuse of God’s Law, not God’s Law itself.
My quote: Learning the difference between the written law of the LORD, transcribed by Moses, and the oral law that was man-made by the Pharisees and Sadducee's is crucial in understanding Paul's writings. I am not Jewish and if there are any Pharisees or Sadducee's functioning in 2023, I don't know them.