Who Is Matt 24 Addressed To?

Fleaing a tyrannical attack on the Sabbath would not violate the Sabbath, Jesus made that clear in his earlier teachings when he healed on the Sabbath, and when his men were picking grain on the Sabbath.

Who are the elect of Matt 24v22,24,31 and Mark 13v20,22,27?

Some have foolishly stated, that the mention of “Judea” and “the Sabbath” in Matt 24v16,20, shows that Matt 24 was addressed to the Jews, and not Christians. They say this because Matt 24v30, is undoubtedly a coming in glory, and to admit that it was addressed to Christians would destroy the pretribulation advent theory, and so the argument was advanced that Matt 24 was not addressed to the Church. In Matt 24v20, Jesus gives specific warning signs to Christians who will be in Judea in the time of Antichrist. The fact that Matt 24v20, speaks of people who are willing to listen to Christ and willing to flee on the Sabbath, proves that it is not addressed to strict Jews, who would do neither. Only Christians would take heed to the words of Christ. Jews will certainly not obey a prophet they do not believe in.

Is Matthew 24 addressed to the Church of Christ, or the Jews?

Jesus gives the answer in Mark 13v37, “What I say unto you, I say unto all, Watch.” By giving this command to His apostles, Jesus instructs all His Church. The apostles were Israelites, but they were the apostles of the Church, and Jesus spoke to them in this capacity, as Christian believers. If Matt 24 is not to be looked upon as applicable to Christians, because it is “Jewish,” who is to decide what is Jewish and what is Christian? The Gospels are, with a few exceptions, a record of Christ’s ministry to Israelites, but they contain His vital teachings for His Church. The epistles of Peter, James and Hebrews are written to Jews, are we to set these aside? Certainly Not! They contain indispensable Christian truth. Was the New Covenant of Matt 26v28, just for the Jews, because it was only spoken to the apostles? Of course not! it is for every believer in Christ Jesus.

The refusal to recognise that the truths of Matt 24 were addressed to the Church, has driven some to utter folly in their reasoning, some have even looked upon the Lord's prayer and the Lord's Supper as “Jewish ordinances,” and not applicable to the Church of Christ. If Matt 24 was spoken to the apostles as Jews and not as Christians, how were they to know it? How shall we know what New Testament Scriptures apply to us? What use would these prophecies be to Jews who do not believe in Christ? It would be very strange if the earnest warnings of Christ in Matt 24, Mark 13, and Luke 17 and 21, were not addressed to Christians, but to Jews who have no faith in Christ. How can those who say that Matt 24 was written for Jews, use Matt 24v36,42 as a major text to prove that Christ may come at any moment for His Church? What kind of Scripture expositor uses a chapter which states that the coming of Christ is preceded by very clear signs, and warns against a secret second advent, to prove that there is a secret advent and rapture of the Church without those signs? Particularly when its advocates say that Matt 24 is addressed only to the Jews, and not to the Church. The pretribulation rapture theory has become widely accepted because Western Christians are unwilling to suffer persecution for Christ's sake. Heb 11v25. As someone has said, “It is an interesting fact that the pretribulation rapture theory did not arise out of a suffering Church. It has come out of a Western civilisation that has been the most comfortable and pleasant in the whole history of Christianity.”

Some have said that the Church was not founded until the day of Pentecost; however, this can be shown to be wrong by many passages of Scripture. The apostles were converted before Pentecost; their names were “written in heaven,” Luke 10v20; they were “clean,” John 15v3; and they belonged to God. John 15v3. Pentecost was not the time when they were saved, they were rejoicing in their salvation before this, Pentecost was the time when they received the promise of the Father to His children, the baptism in the Holy Spirit. Luke 24v49,52,53. Christ said the Law and the prophets were until John, the age of grace and truth started when Jesus started His ministry. Matt 11v13, Luke 16v16, John 1v17. It is nonsense to say that Matt 24 was not spoken to the Church, because the Church did not exist until the day of Pentecost; God gave many promises that belong to the Church to the Old Testament prophets, many centuries before the day of Pentecost.

The facts and context prove the elect of Matt 24 are Christians, and that Matt 24 is addressed to Christians.

a) The elect are Christians who are all over the world, and preaching the Gospel to all the world. Matt 24v14.

b) The elect are Christians who are hated, persecuted and dying for Christ all over the world. Matt 24v9,16-20, Mark 13v9-13.

c) The elect are Christians who are looking for Christ's return and are warned about false Christs. Matt 24v13-27, Luke 21v19,28.

d) The elect are Christians who are gathered by angels, for we know from Isaiah 65v15-21, that the Israelites, who are scattered throughout the world are gathered, not by angels, but by the Gentiles, who bring them to Jerusalem as an offering to God.

e) We read that Matt 25v1 begins with a “Then,” connecting it with Matt 24v44-51; Jesus said the subject is the kingdom of Heaven, not the kingdom of Israel. The parable of the ten virgins is a parable on the truth stated in Mtatt 24v42-51, the good servant who follows Jesus faithfully to the end of the great tribulation, and the evil servant who backslides into the world in those dark and evil days. The good servant and evil servant appear to be Christian leaders, whose work is to give correct truth at the end of the age. The good servant faithfully fulfils his task, whereas the evil servant has the incorrect idea that His Lord has delayed His coming, and as a result loses faith and lives an evil life, and is cut in sunder by His Lord. The (foolish) virgins appear to be Christians who again had wrong ideas about their Lord’s return, probably through wrong teaching, and had not prepared for the darkness of the last days. This is a very definite Christian truth, which is addressed to all of the Church of Christ.

f) Jesus warns us that Christians will have to persevere in prayer or they will faint and lose their faith in Him. Luke 18v1-8. Jesus speaks of an elect who are crying day and night for deliverance, and of a God that will avenge the sufferings of His elect at the hands of the wicked. This is certainly not the kind of language that we would expect if we are sure to miss the tribulation. Those who endure as far as the rapture are those who have prayed and not fainted, but many will backslide, and Jesus warns us, “and when the Son of Man cometh, shall He find faith on the earth?” Luke 17v34-36, 18v8, Matt 24v12,13, Rev 13v10, 16v15.

Paul states in Rom 11v5,6, that people have to believe in Jesus to receive the “election of grace.” Paul was heartbroken that most of Israel were blinded by unbelief, and in Exodus 3v14-16. God gave the Israelites His word, and godly Jews are loved and precious to Him; and when they are presented with a sign-attested Gospel they often respond to the truth in Jesus. God has always given the Jews time to consider His Word, and has invited them to reason with Him. God welcomes scarlet sinners, both Jews and Gentiles, with sweet forgiving reasonableness. Isaiah 1v18.

We see from Acts 10v1-48, N.B. v34,35, that, “In truth God shows no partiality. But in every nation whoever fears Him and works righteousness is accepted by Him.” Cornelius was justified on an Old Testament basis, and he was loved, acceptable, and precious to God, even before He heard the Gospel; and so are godly Jews. Paul states that there is now no difference between Jew and Greek, the elect consists of those who call on the Lord to save them. Rom 10v8-14, N.B. v13. Matt 1v21. In Christ, “There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.” Gal 3v28. No one can be among the New Testament “elect” unless they believe in Jesus as Saviour. John 6v37,45,53, 8v24,42, 1Thess 1v4, 2Peter 1v10, 1John 5v9-13, 1Peter 1v9-12.

Some have stated that Matt 24 and 1Thess 4v13 to 5v5 are different events, one speaking of a coming in glory and the other speaking of a secret rapture. However, though their aim was different, Matt 24 was given to show the signs of Christ's coming and the end of the age, and 1Thess 4v13 to 5v5 was given to comfort and challenge the relatives of departed believers, they are both speaking of the same event, they both use the same descriptive language, they speak of angelic powers, a great voice, a great trumpet, the clouds of heavenly glory, and the elect being gathered and caught up to meet their Lord. Sidlow Baxter states the following, on pages 219, 220 of his, “Explore the book,” that the parallels between 1Thess 4 and Matt 24, are irresistible to an honest mind. Both have angels, voice, trumpet, clouds, and gathered congregating saints. What kind of Bible interpretation can take exactly the same phrases and symbols, and teach a glorious public coming in Matt 24, and a secret coming in 1Thess 4v13-18? It proves that 1Thess 4v13-18 does not teach a secret rapture. Bible students must test doctrines by the Scriptures, even as the Bereans did. Acts 17v10-12.

It is absolutely clear that Matt 24 is addressed to the Church of Christ, and that there will be a post-tribulation advent of Christ and rapture of the Church.

.....and yet all the rapture verses are pretrib.
Too funny.

The second coming in no way resembles the rapture.

I would clarify that it was directed at the Church ESTABLISHED by Christ. Not the Church of Christ which exists as one of the major groups of churches today. Just to clarify. Else, someone might get the idea that this Chapter was directed only at the Church of Christ, and not the Southern Baptists, and/or all the other church groups.

Fleaing a tyrannical attack on the Sabbath would not violate the Sabbath, Jesus made that clear in his earlier teachings when he healed on the Sabbath, and when his men were picking grain on the Sabbath.

The use of "flea" is incorrect, as has already been pointed out to you

Haft is incorrect, as has already been pointed out to you.
As in, we do not haft to do something, we have to.

Typing in all caps, again, pointed out to you as offensive many times.

Still you do persist in these things.

How teachable are you?

Sorry, he was quoting me, and I used the wrong word for fleeing, it was early this morning. Any way the rest is on him. I used the wrong course on Monday and wrote coarse instead. No one pointed that one out though. Any way fleaing was my error.

On an symmetrically different tac, pardon me but this reminds me of some conversations that I have with an ESL friend that is very well spoken in general but some times has to spell the words that he's trying to say so that I can understand him. We both realize his native tongue is Tagalog and he reads so much in english that he truly knows what hes trying to convey. So sometimes he spells it out for me. Then I get it.

Anyway, Jesus was speaking in private with his disciples. He warned them of things they would face and things that at that time were far off.

Thread Title: Who Is Matt 24 Addressed To?

"Is Matthew 24 addressed to the Church of Christ..."

Here in the UK The Mormons are know generally as "The Mormons," or "The Church of Jesus Christ of the Latter day Saints," but never just as "The Church of Christ," although seemingly they can be referred to such in the US.

Anyway, when I use the term "The Church of Christ," I am referring to Christ's own Church, which is His Body, which He is the Head of, the members of which are redeemed by His shed Blood. Acts 20v28.

The Lord surely knew that they would quote him for us, He said it on purpose so those that accept and receive the basic gospel would have a sort of basic foreknowledge of what is to come to pass.

Think of the way he said it to them. Think of the words and how the phrasing is. Then think of how he said some of you will not pass until these things happen.

Matt 24 has a dual fulfilment, partial in 70 AD, but complete at the 2nd Coming.

Matt 24v15 was not totally fulfilled 70 AD, as no Roman soldier / leader sat in the Temple in Jerusalem claiming that he was God, they simply sacrificed on the ruins of the Temple, you can read Josephus's account of that in his writings.

The whole thrust of Matt 24 is about the time leading up to and including Our Lord's Second Coming as is clear from the apostle's question in v3: "the disciples came to Him privately, saying, "Tell us, when will these things be? And what will be the sign of Your coming, and of the end of the age?"

Also note, he links Daniel 9v27 (the 70th Week), with His 2nd Coming and the "abomination of desolation" the cardinal sign to watch out for that will let His people (the elect) know that He will come in great power and glory three and a half years later. 2Thess 2v1-12.

Matthew 24:15-22 / Mark 13:14-20 / Luke 21:20-24 are "all about" the events circa 70 A.D.

Yes - that is correct - all three of these passages are talking about the very same exact thing.

Matthew 24:15-22 / Mark 13:14-20 / Luke 21:20-24 are "all about" the events circa 70 A.D.

I like what you wrote in the OP; however, I did not realize you were saying that Matthew 24 was "all about" the Second Coming. On this point, and what is in the quote above, I will have to disagree.

Matthew 24 is "all about" the past ~2000 years. It is addressed to Christians. It is addressed to Jews, It is addressed to some who are neither. It is a prophetic description about what would happen in the future (relative to the time it was written).

When the disciples asked Jesus "Tell us, ..." --- He told them more than they asked for.

It is mere conjecture to determine that Jesus told them with ultra-fine precision exactly - no more and no less - what they asked Him.

Their questions only "prompted" Him to make explanation concerning what He determined that they should know about the future.

It is utterly ridiculous to decide that the Lord Himself should have to be confined in His answer to their questions! Think about it...

Anyone who does this is only confining themselves to an erroneous interpretation of the Olivet Discourse passages of scripture.

It is not a dual fulfilment. Part of it occurred circa 70 A.D. Some of it is still yet future - and concluding at the Second Coming.

The prophecy of the Olivet Discourse has been "unfolding" for the past ~2000 years - even until now - and into our future.

Matthew 24:15 was fulfilled circa 70 A.D. - just not quite in the way that you are thinking...

The whole thrust of Matthew 24 was Jesus telling Christians what the future held - from their time to the Second Coming.

There is a 'link' to Daniel - just not what most people think. The reference to Daniel in the Matthew and Mark accounts of the Olivet Discourse is an indirect reference to "the abomination that maketh desolate" in Daniel 11 and 12; it is not a reference to Daniel 9.

Interestingly, there is a reference in Daniel 9 to the events of circa 70 A.D.; however, the Olivet Discourse reference to Daniel has absolutely nothing directly to do with chapter 9 - because, chapter 9 does not refer [specifically] to "the abomination that maketh desolate" (the 'event').

The 70th week of Daniel ended in 34 A.D. The Daniel 9:24-27 prophecy has been fulfilled.

Matthew 24:15-22 / Mark 13:14-20 / Luke 21:20-24 are "all about" the events circa 70 A.D.

Yes - that is correct - all three of these passages are talking about the very same exact thing.

To get a proper understanding of the Olivet Discourse, you have to study all three accounts together.