Who Is Matt 24 Addressed To?

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
B

Blackpowderduelist

Guest
#21
Fleaing a tyrannical attack on the Sabbath would not violate the Sabbath, Jesus made that clear in his earlier teachings when he healed on the Sabbath, and when his men were picking grain on the Sabbath.
Revelation 16:12 And the sixth angel poured out his vial upon the great river Euphrates; and the water thereof was dried up, that the way of the kings of the east might be prepared.
Revelation 16:13 And I saw three unclean spirits like frogs [come] out of the mouth of the dragon, and out of the mouth of the beast, and out of the mouth of the false prophet.
Revelation 16:14 For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, [which] go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty.
Revelation 16:15 Behold, I come as a thief. Blessed [is] he that watcheth, and keepeth his garments, lest he walk naked, and they see his shame. Here GOD is tell them to hide their self till HIS indignation be overpast.
YESUAH ALSO tells US that the lost is gathered before the lost,
Matthew 13:30 Let both grow together until the harvest: and in the time of harvest I will say to the reapers, Gather ye together first the tares, and bind them in bundles to burn them: but gather the wheat into my barn.

This tells us that the wicked will be gathered first, He will destroy the wicked by the brightness of his Coming'
24:1 Behold, the LORD maketh the earth empty, and maketh it waste, and turneth it upside down, and scattereth abroad the inhabitants thereof.
24:2 And it shall be, as with the people, so with the priest; as with the servant, so with his master; as with the maid, so with her mistress; as with the buyer, so with the seller; as with the lender, so with the borrower; as with the taker of usury, so with the giver of usury to him.
24:3 The land shall be utterly emptied, and utterly spoiled: for the LORD hath spoken this word.
24:4 The earth mourneth [and] fadeth away, the world languisheth [and] fadeth away, the haughty people of the earth do languish.
24:5 The earth also is defiled under the inhabitants thereof; because they have transgressed the laws, changed the ordinance, broken the everlasting covenant.
24:6 Therefore hath the curse devoured the earth, and they that dwell therein are desolate: therefore the inhabitants of the earth are burned, and few men left. {the wicked are destroyed first}
Why would YESUAH COME AS THIEF, after the 6th plague, There is no rapture, the saints will go through plagues.
Isaiah 26:20 Come, my people, enter thou into thy chambers, and shut thy doors about thee: hide thyself as it were for a little moment, until the indignation be overpast.
Isaiah 26:21 For, behold, the LORD cometh out of his place to punish the inhabitants of the earth for their iniquity: the earth also shall disclose her blood, and shall no more cover her slain.[/QUOTE]
I guess I am failing to see the correlation between what you are saying here, and what I said.
My point was simply that it wouldn't be a violation of the he Sabbath to flea an attack.
I made no allusion to a rapture. I am not one that prescribes to a pretribulation rapture, or a rapture at all; at least as it has been taught in the dispensationalist line of thinking anyway.

I take more of a preterist stance, but not a complete preterist, not even sure enough to actually be in their camp.
 
Jul 23, 2018
12,199
2,775
113
#22
Who are the elect of Matt 24v22,24,31 and Mark 13v20,22,27?

Some have foolishly stated, that the mention of “Judea” and “the Sabbath” in Matt 24v16,20, shows that Matt 24 was addressed to the Jews, and not Christians. They say this because Matt 24v30, is undoubtedly a coming in glory, and to admit that it was addressed to Christians would destroy the pretribulation advent theory, and so the argument was advanced that Matt 24 was not addressed to the Church. In Matt 24v20, Jesus gives specific warning signs to Christians who will be in Judea in the time of Antichrist. The fact that Matt 24v20, speaks of people who are willing to listen to Christ and willing to flee on the Sabbath, proves that it is not addressed to strict Jews, who would do neither. Only Christians would take heed to the words of Christ. Jews will certainly not obey a prophet they do not believe in.

Is Matthew 24 addressed to the Church of Christ, or the Jews?

Jesus gives the answer in Mark 13v37, “What I say unto you, I say unto all, Watch.” By giving this command to His apostles, Jesus instructs all His Church. The apostles were Israelites, but they were the apostles of the Church, and Jesus spoke to them in this capacity, as Christian believers. If Matt 24 is not to be looked upon as applicable to Christians, because it is “Jewish,” who is to decide what is Jewish and what is Christian? The Gospels are, with a few exceptions, a record of Christ’s ministry to Israelites, but they contain His vital teachings for His Church. The epistles of Peter, James and Hebrews are written to Jews, are we to set these aside? Certainly Not! They contain indispensable Christian truth. Was the New Covenant of Matt 26v28, just for the Jews, because it was only spoken to the apostles? Of course not! it is for every believer in Christ Jesus.

The refusal to recognise that the truths of Matt 24 were addressed to the Church, has driven some to utter folly in their reasoning, some have even looked upon the Lord's prayer and the Lord's Supper as “Jewish ordinances,” and not applicable to the Church of Christ. If Matt 24 was spoken to the apostles as Jews and not as Christians, how were they to know it? How shall we know what New Testament Scriptures apply to us? What use would these prophecies be to Jews who do not believe in Christ? It would be very strange if the earnest warnings of Christ in Matt 24, Mark 13, and Luke 17 and 21, were not addressed to Christians, but to Jews who have no faith in Christ. How can those who say that Matt 24 was written for Jews, use Matt 24v36,42 as a major text to prove that Christ may come at any moment for His Church? What kind of Scripture expositor uses a chapter which states that the coming of Christ is preceded by very clear signs, and warns against a secret second advent, to prove that there is a secret advent and rapture of the Church without those signs? Particularly when its advocates say that Matt 24 is addressed only to the Jews, and not to the Church. The pretribulation rapture theory has become widely accepted because Western Christians are unwilling to suffer persecution for Christ's sake. Heb 11v25. As someone has said, “It is an interesting fact that the pretribulation rapture theory did not arise out of a suffering Church. It has come out of a Western civilisation that has been the most comfortable and pleasant in the whole history of Christianity.”

Some have said that the Church was not founded until the day of Pentecost; however, this can be shown to be wrong by many passages of Scripture. The apostles were converted before Pentecost; their names were “written in heaven,” Luke 10v20; they were “clean,” John 15v3; and they belonged to God. John 15v3. Pentecost was not the time when they were saved, they were rejoicing in their salvation before this, Pentecost was the time when they received the promise of the Father to His children, the baptism in the Holy Spirit. Luke 24v49,52,53. Christ said the Law and the prophets were until John, the age of grace and truth started when Jesus started His ministry. Matt 11v13, Luke 16v16, John 1v17. It is nonsense to say that Matt 24 was not spoken to the Church, because the Church did not exist until the day of Pentecost; God gave many promises that belong to the Church to the Old Testament prophets, many centuries before the day of Pentecost.

The facts and context prove the elect of Matt 24 are Christians, and that Matt 24 is addressed to Christians.

a) The elect are Christians who are all over the world, and preaching the Gospel to all the world. Matt 24v14.

b) The elect are Christians who are hated, persecuted and dying for Christ all over the world. Matt 24v9,16-20, Mark 13v9-13.

c) The elect are Christians who are looking for Christ's return and are warned about false Christs. Matt 24v13-27, Luke 21v19,28.

d) The elect are Christians who are gathered by angels, for we know from Isaiah 65v15-21, that the Israelites, who are scattered throughout the world are gathered, not by angels, but by the Gentiles, who bring them to Jerusalem as an offering to God.

e) We read that Matt 25v1 begins with a “Then,” connecting it with Matt 24v44-51; Jesus said the subject is the kingdom of Heaven, not the kingdom of Israel. The parable of the ten virgins is a parable on the truth stated in Mtatt 24v42-51, the good servant who follows Jesus faithfully to the end of the great tribulation, and the evil servant who backslides into the world in those dark and evil days. The good servant and evil servant appear to be Christian leaders, whose work is to give correct truth at the end of the age. The good servant faithfully fulfils his task, whereas the evil servant has the incorrect idea that His Lord has delayed His coming, and as a result loses faith and lives an evil life, and is cut in sunder by His Lord. The (foolish) virgins appear to be Christians who again had wrong ideas about their Lord’s return, probably through wrong teaching, and had not prepared for the darkness of the last days. This is a very definite Christian truth, which is addressed to all of the Church of Christ.

f) Jesus warns us that Christians will have to persevere in prayer or they will faint and lose their faith in Him. Luke 18v1-8. Jesus speaks of an elect who are crying day and night for deliverance, and of a God that will avenge the sufferings of His elect at the hands of the wicked. This is certainly not the kind of language that we would expect if we are sure to miss the tribulation. Those who endure as far as the rapture are those who have prayed and not fainted, but many will backslide, and Jesus warns us, “and when the Son of Man cometh, shall He find faith on the earth?” Luke 17v34-36, 18v8, Matt 24v12,13, Rev 13v10, 16v15.

Paul states in Rom 11v5,6, that people have to believe in Jesus to receive the “election of grace.” Paul was heartbroken that most of Israel were blinded by unbelief, and in Exodus 3v14-16. God gave the Israelites His word, and godly Jews are loved and precious to Him; and when they are presented with a sign-attested Gospel they often respond to the truth in Jesus. God has always given the Jews time to consider His Word, and has invited them to reason with Him. God welcomes scarlet sinners, both Jews and Gentiles, with sweet forgiving reasonableness. Isaiah 1v18.

We see from Acts 10v1-48, N.B. v34,35, that, “In truth God shows no partiality. But in every nation whoever fears Him and works righteousness is accepted by Him.” Cornelius was justified on an Old Testament basis, and he was loved, acceptable, and precious to God, even before He heard the Gospel; and so are godly Jews. Paul states that there is now no difference between Jew and Greek, the elect consists of those who call on the Lord to save them. Rom 10v8-14, N.B. v13. Matt 1v21. In Christ, “There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.” Gal 3v28. No one can be among the New Testament “elect” unless they believe in Jesus as Saviour. John 6v37,45,53, 8v24,42, 1Thess 1v4, 2Peter 1v10, 1John 5v9-13, 1Peter 1v9-12.

Some have stated that Matt 24 and 1Thess 4v13 to 5v5 are different events, one speaking of a coming in glory and the other speaking of a secret rapture. However, though their aim was different, Matt 24 was given to show the signs of Christ's coming and the end of the age, and 1Thess 4v13 to 5v5 was given to comfort and challenge the relatives of departed believers, they are both speaking of the same event, they both use the same descriptive language, they speak of angelic powers, a great voice, a great trumpet, the clouds of heavenly glory, and the elect being gathered and caught up to meet their Lord. Sidlow Baxter states the following, on pages 219, 220 of his, “Explore the book,” that the parallels between 1Thess 4 and Matt 24, are irresistible to an honest mind. Both have angels, voice, trumpet, clouds, and gathered congregating saints. What kind of Bible interpretation can take exactly the same phrases and symbols, and teach a glorious public coming in Matt 24, and a secret coming in 1Thess 4v13-18? It proves that 1Thess 4v13-18 does not teach a secret rapture. Bible students must test doctrines by the Scriptures, even as the Bereans did. Acts 17v10-12.

It is absolutely clear that Matt 24 is addressed to the Church of Christ, and that there will be a post-tribulation advent of Christ and rapture of the Church.
.....and yet all the rapture verses are pretrib.
Too funny.

The second coming in no way resembles the rapture.
 
B

Blackpowderduelist

Guest
#23
.....and yet all the rapture verses are pretrib.
Too funny.

The second coming in no way resembles the rapture.
Please post the rapture verses.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#24
What does the rapture have to do with matt 24?
 

FlyingDove

Senior Member
Dec 27, 2017
1,267
432
83
#25
Scripture Study Tips

When dissecting any verse of scripture. Ask yourself, of whom, to whom, with what words, what time, where, to what intent, with what circumstances, considering what is written before and what follows any single verse context.
^^^^^Myles Coverdale, Bible theologian/translator^^^^^

So ask: Who is writing? Who’s it written to? What are the circumstances? What’s the context before? What's the context after?

Matt 24:13 Proper Context. Who is the speaker? JESUS

Context: Who is Jesus speaking to? Vrs 1 & 3 privately to his disciples. This is day 3 of passion week. The Holy Spirit has yet to be given (Jn 7:39, Acts 2:4) therefore, the Body of Christ/NT church doesn't exist.

Context: What is Jesus speaking about? Verse 3 the end of the world/age.

Context: Vrs 4-13 The prophecy here parallels the END TIME seal judgments:

Matt 24: Vs 5 - Rev 6:2 false Christs, Vs 6 - Rev 6:3&4 war, Vs 7 - Rev: 5&6, Famine, Vs 6&7 - Rev 6:7&8 death, Vs 9-13 - Rev 6:6-11 martyers

Vs 15 references Daniel & the abomination of desolation

Vs 16 let those where? in JUDAEA! Again NO NT believers/Body of Christ/Church/those indwelt with Christs Holy Spirit are non-existent.

Context: Matt 24 Jesus is speaking to "Jews only about Israel's Future" Foretelling the tribulation period to come.

BTW the tribulation is referred to as JACOB/ISRAELS trouble. Jeremiah 30:7
 

jb

Senior Member
Feb 27, 2010
4,940
591
113
#26
I would clarify that it was directed at the Church ESTABLISHED by Christ. Not the Church of Christ which exists as one of the major groups of churches today. Just to clarify. Else, someone might get the idea that this Chapter was directed only at the Church of Christ, and not the Southern Baptists, and/or all the other church groups. :)
"Is Matthew 24 addressed to the Church of Christ..."

Here in the UK The Mormons are know generally as "The Mormons," or "The Church of Jesus Christ of the Latter day Saints," but never just as "The Church of Christ," although seemingly they can be referred to such in the US.

Anyway, when I use the term "The Church of Christ," I am referring to Christ's own Church, which is His Body, which He is the Head of, the members of which are redeemed by His shed Blood. Acts 20v28.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
59,828
29,201
113
#27
Fleaing a tyrannical attack on the Sabbath would not violate the Sabbath, Jesus made that clear in his earlier teachings when he healed on the Sabbath, and when his men were picking grain on the Sabbath.
The use of "flea" is incorrect, as has already been pointed out to you :unsure:

Haft is incorrect, as has already been pointed out to you.
As in, we do not haft to do something, we have to.


Typing in all caps, again, pointed out to you as offensive many times.

Still you do persist in these things.

How teachable are you?
 
B

Blackpowderduelist

Guest
#28
The use of "flea" is incorrect, as has already been pointed out to you :unsure:

Haft is incorrect, as has already been pointed out to you.
As in, we do not haft to do something, we have to.


Typing in all caps, again, pointed out to you as offensive many times.

Still you do persist in these things.

How teachable are you?
Sorry, he was quoting me, and I used the wrong word for fleeing, it was early this morning. Any way the rest is on him. I used the wrong course on Monday and wrote coarse instead. No one pointed that one out though. Any way fleaing was my error.
 

calibob

Sinner saved by grace
May 29, 2018
8,268
5,516
113
Anaheim, Cali.
#29
Sorry, he was quoting me, and I used the wrong word for fleeing, it was early this morning. Any way the rest is on him. I used the wrong course on Monday and wrote coarse instead. No one pointed that one out though. Any way fleaing was my error.
On an symmetrically different tac, pardon me but this reminds me of some conversations that I have with an ESL friend that is very well spoken in general but some times has to spell the words that he's trying to say so that I can understand him. We both realize his native tongue is Tagalog and he reads so much in english that he truly knows what hes trying to convey. So sometimes he spells it out for me. Then I get it. :LOL:
 
B

Blackpowderduelist

Guest
#30
On an symmetrically different tac, pardon me but this reminds me of some conversations that I have with an ESL friend that is very well spoken in general but some times has to spell the words that he's trying to say so that I can understand him. We both realize his native tongue is Tagalog and he reads so much in english that he truly knows what hes trying to convey. So sometimes he spells it out for me. Then I get it. :LOL:
I just need to remember to re-read before I post. Rather than after. It's a bad habit I know.
 
B

Blackpowderduelist

Guest
#31
Anyway, Jesus was speaking in private with his disciples. He warned them of things they would face and things that at that time were far off.
 

Blik

Senior Member
Dec 6, 2016
7,312
2,428
113
#32
I don't think it matters who Matt. 24 is addressing, it is a simple statement of truth. Who it was originally addressed to does nothing to change the truth.
 

calibob

Sinner saved by grace
May 29, 2018
8,268
5,516
113
Anaheim, Cali.
#33
Anyway, Jesus was speaking in private with his disciples. He warned them of things they would face and things that at that time were far off.
The Lord surely knew that they would quote him for us, He said it on purpose so those that accept and receive the basic gospel would have a sort of basic foreknowledge of what is to come to pass.
 

p_rehbein

Senior Member
Sep 4, 2013
30,665
6,853
113
#35
"Is Matthew 24 addressed to the Church of Christ..."

Here in the UK The Mormons are know generally as "The Mormons," or "The Church of Jesus Christ of the Latter day Saints," but never just as "The Church of Christ," although seemingly they can be referred to such in the US.

Anyway, when I use the term "The Church of Christ," I am referring to Christ's own Church, which is His Body, which He is the Head of, the members of which are redeemed by His shed Blood. Acts 20v28.
I knew what you meant, just wanted to reveal what could be perceived by others possibly.

Actually, though, saying the Church of Christ is completely wrong in pretty much every way. Reason being; Christ is not His Name. His Name is Jesus. Christ is His Title. He is The Christ. Thus: to be Biblically correct one would have to say The Church of Jesus the Christ.

Even then, that is just a preference and not Biblical Truth. Reason being the Church is more often referred to as the Church of God in Scripture. I believe (don't quote me) that Church of Christ is only used twice in Scripture, and Church of God is used seven or eight times.

See, the Church is Gods Church of which Jesus the Christ is the Head of. This is what Scripture teaches.

(just saying)
 
B

Blackpowderduelist

Guest
#36
The Lord surely knew that they would quote him for us, He said it on purpose so those that accept and receive the basic gospel would have a sort of basic foreknowledge of what is to come to pass.
Think of the way he said it to them. Think of the words and how the phrasing is. Then think of how he said some of you will not pass until these things happen.
 

GaryA

Truth, Honesty, Love, Courage
Aug 10, 2019
9,803
4,303
113
mywebsite.us
#38
Matt 24 has a dual fulfilment, partial in 70 AD, but complete at the 2nd Coming.

Matt 24v15 was not totally fulfilled 70 AD, as no Roman soldier / leader sat in the Temple in Jerusalem claiming that he was God, they simply sacrificed on the ruins of the Temple, you can read Josephus's account of that in his writings.

The whole thrust of Matt 24 is about the time leading up to and including Our Lord's Second Coming as is clear from the apostle's question in v3: "the disciples came to Him privately, saying, "Tell us, when will these things be? And what will be the sign of Your coming, and of the end of the age?"

Also note, he links Daniel 9v27 (the 70th Week), with His 2nd Coming and the "abomination of desolation" the cardinal sign to watch out for that will let His people (the elect) know that He will come in great power and glory three and a half years later. 2Thess 2v1-12.
I like what you wrote in the OP; however, I did not realize you were saying that Matthew 24 was "all about" the Second Coming. On this point, and what is in the quote above, I will have to disagree.

Matthew 24 is "all about" the past ~2000 years. It is addressed to Christians. It is addressed to Jews, It is addressed to some who are neither. It is a prophetic description about what would happen in the future (relative to the time it was written).

When the disciples asked Jesus "Tell us, ..." --- He told them more than they asked for.

It is mere conjecture to determine that Jesus told them with ultra-fine precision exactly - no more and no less - what they asked Him.

Their questions only "prompted" Him to make explanation concerning what He determined that they should know about the future.

It is utterly ridiculous to decide that the Lord Himself should have to be confined in His answer to their questions! Think about it...

Anyone who does this is only confining themselves to an erroneous interpretation of the Olivet Discourse passages of scripture.

It is not a dual fulfilment. Part of it occurred circa 70 A.D. Some of it is still yet future - and concluding at the Second Coming.

The prophecy of the Olivet Discourse has been "unfolding" for the past ~2000 years - even until now - and into our future.

Matthew 24:15 was fulfilled circa 70 A.D. - just not quite in the way that you are thinking...

The whole thrust of Matthew 24 was Jesus telling Christians what the future held - from their time to the Second Coming.

There is a 'link' to Daniel - just not what most people think. The reference to Daniel in the Matthew and Mark accounts of the Olivet Discourse is an indirect reference to "the abomination that maketh desolate" in Daniel 11 and 12; it is not a reference to Daniel 9.

Interestingly, there is a reference in Daniel 9 to the events of circa 70 A.D.; however, the Olivet Discourse reference to Daniel has absolutely nothing directly to do with chapter 9 - because, chapter 9 does not refer [specifically] to "the abomination that maketh desolate" (the 'event').

The 70th week of Daniel ended in 34 A.D. The Daniel 9:24-27 prophecy has been fulfilled.

Matthew 24:15-22 / Mark 13:14-20 / Luke 21:20-24 are "all about" the events circa 70 A.D.

Yes - that is correct - all three of these passages are talking about the very same exact thing.

To get a proper understanding of the Olivet Discourse, you have to study all three accounts together.
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
2,112
113
#39
^ Consider the following, in view of what you've put here:

Matthew 24:15-22 / Mark 13:14-20 / Luke 21:20-24 are "all about" the events circa 70 A.D.

Yes - that is correct - all three of these passages are talking about the very same exact thing.
Matt24:4-8 / Mk13:5-8 / Lk21:8-11 are "the beginning of birth pangs"

...but v.12 says, "BUT BEFORE ALL THESE" [that is, BEFORE ALL THESE beginning of birth pangs] the FOLLOWING SECTION of events (vv.12-24a/b) must take place (i.e. THE 70ad events in vv.12-24a/b [ONLY])



Matt24 then STARTS OUT with "the beginning of birth pangs" (which are the EQUIVALENT of the SEALS of Rev6... but Rev1:1[1:19c/4:1] INCLUDES THESE in "the things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]"... not unfold from the first century, nor over a great spans of time...) which are thereafter FOLLOWED by the events spelled out later in the passage, such as vv.15-21 [mid-trib events], etc etc)

This is the SEQUENCE that the Olivet Discourse is disclosing... (so that, everything in the Matt24 section is "yet future" [far-future to when written], and does not include anything of the 70ad events, but where "the beginning of birth pangs" [which happen AFTER the 70ad events!!] later/future-ly PICK UP THE STORYLINE [and continue forward from THOSE], so to speak).


Matthew 24:15-22 / Mark 13:14-20 / Luke 21:20-24 are "all about" the events circa 70 A.D.
The BLUE is correct (THAT SECTION of Lk21 IS about the 70ad events)... but because of the SEQUENCE ISSUES within the Olivet Discourse, the Matt & Mk passages ^ referred to above speak of the "far-future" aspect (those things which come AFTER "the beginning of birth pangs"--which KICK-OFF the future trib years [SEALS])!




The "you/ye" of the Olivet Discourse is a "consistent 'you'/'ye'" and a "proleptic 'you'"... [proleptic] meaning (basically) "all those in the future, of the same category," and Jesus, up to and INCLUDING His Olivet Discourse had NOT YET mentioned ANYTHING about our "Rapture [IN THE AIR]," but spoke all about His Second Coming to the earth, FOR the promised and prophesied earthly Millennial Kingdom (promised to Israel--and yes, they will INVITE "guests [PLURAL]"--so not JUST them, see ;) ), which will commence upon His "RETURN" to the earth (Rev19)
 

calibob

Sinner saved by grace
May 29, 2018
8,268
5,516
113
Anaheim, Cali.
#40
I like what you wrote in the OP; however, I did not realize you were saying that Matthew 24 was "all about" the Second Coming. On this point, and what is in the quote above, I will have to disagree.

Matthew 24 is "all about" the past ~2000 years. It is addressed to Christians. It is addressed to Jews, It is addressed to some who are neither. It is a prophetic description about what would happen in the future (relative to the time it was written).

When the disciples asked Jesus "Tell us, ..." --- He told them more than they asked for.

It is mere conjecture to determine that Jesus told them with ultra-fine precision exactly - no more and no less - what they asked Him.

Their questions only "prompted" Him to make explanation concerning what He determined that they should know about the future.

It is utterly ridiculous to decide that the Lord Himself should have to be confined in His answer to their questions! Think about it...

Anyone who does this is only confining themselves to an erroneous interpretation of the Olivet Discourse passages of scripture.

It is not a dual fulfilment. Part of it occurred circa 70 A.D. Some of it is still yet future - and concluding at the Second Coming.

The prophecy of the Olivet Discourse has been "unfolding" for the past ~2000 years - even until now - and into our future.

Matthew 24:15 was fulfilled circa 70 A.D. - just not quite in the way that you are thinking...

The whole thrust of Matthew 24 was Jesus telling Christians what the future held - from their time to the Second Coming.

There is a 'link' to Daniel - just not what most people think. The reference to Daniel in the Matthew and Mark accounts of the Olivet Discourse is an indirect reference to "the abomination that maketh desolate" in Daniel 11 and 12; it is not a reference to Daniel 9.

Interestingly, there is a reference in Daniel 9 to the events of circa 70 A.D.; however, the Olivet Discourse reference to Daniel has absolutely nothing directly to do with chapter 9 - because, chapter 9 does not refer [specifically] to "the abomination that maketh desolate" (the 'event').

The 70th week of Daniel ended in 34 A.D. The Daniel 9:24-27 prophecy has been fulfilled.

Matthew 24:15-22 / Mark 13:14-20 / Luke 21:20-24 are "all about" the events circa 70 A.D.

Yes - that is correct - all three of these passages are talking about the very same exact thing.

To get a proper understanding of the Olivet Discourse, you have to study all three accounts together.
I agree with you up to the end of Daniel 9:26. I believe that verse 27 is still to come. The daily sacrifice to be curtailed is most likely prayer because the temple will need to be rebuilt first or where will the second Beast from Revelations reign from?