Is marking of Mark of the Beast is literal or just figurative?

Hi Dino!

I'd have to agree with preterism as being heresy. It is one of the most destructive teachings out there. Those who have studied Revelation and know about the wrath given in detail, should be using that information to warn people of the coming wrath. Preterism dilutes that wrath by allegorizing and symbolizing that information. Nothing to see here! Nothing to worry about. Preterism is robing God's word of both its meaning and its force. So yeah, I would agree with Nehemiah's choice of words.

We'll have to agree to disagree then. I have been researching preterism, and have not found anything yet that I would call heretical.

So your saying that the Gospel that the angel in Rev.14:6 delivers is the exact same Gospel as Paul delivered and spoke of in Galatians 1:8?

Jesus said "No man comes to the Father but through me." So yes, the gospel that angel will be proclaiming will be the same. And you can see that this is the truth by what is mentioned regarding those great tribulation saints:

"And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony about Jesus and because of the word of God. They had not worshiped the beast or his image and had not received his mark on their foreheads or their hands."

The great tribulation saints will be keeping their testimony of Jesus, which is the gospel. There is no other gospel, but Christ crucified, buried and resurrected.

The mark of the beast, I suppose must really translate as Sick that makes people Sick that gets things Sicker.
It is said, you must forgive 70x7,
Punishment that is just, and does not overflow onto others, causing them harm.

I suppose it is wrong, that people are evil if they buy or sell.
A state with fair welfare would be good enough,
Otherwise it would be rationing. Which is about the same.

Then the angel comes with the Everlasting Gospel when it was already preached by Paul and the others, and so by then it is misunderstood,corrupted,forgotten or something. So then do you think this is past tense, future tense or present ,,,is it before or after the rapture?

Diluting God's wrath is not heretical?

This is the book which says, "blessed are those who read the prophecy of this book and those who hear it and take it to heart."

And

"I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this scroll: If anyone adds anything to them, God will add to that person the plagues described in this scroll. And if anyone takes words away from this scroll of prophecy, God will take away from that person any share in the tree of life and in the Holy City, which are described in this scroll."

As an example, I would also remind you about what Paul said regarding Hymeneus and Philetus who were teaching that the resurrection had already taken place. He said that it was godless chatter and that this teaching would spread like gangrene and that they had wandered away from the truth, as well destroying the faith of some.

Full Preterism teaches that the events of Matthew 24 and Revelation has already been fulfilled, including the resurrection. That would immediately put them in the Hymeneus and Philetus group, which means that what preterists teach is godless chatter, will spread like gangrene (and has) and that they have wandered from the truth.

The bible is a spiritual book. The focus is on the things not seen .Things of faith not of ones own imagination.

The buying and selling has to do with the truth of the gospel. Not the temporal things of this world. God sends a famine for hearing the gospel not food needed to maintain these bodies of death . Cain and Esau sold the first born rights seeing no value in the things not seen. men are selling out the gospel for the idea of a literal mark .Batteries not included.

Proverbs 23:23 Buy the truth, and sell it not; also wisdom, and instruction, and understanding.

Revelation 13:17 And that no man might buy or sell, save he that had the mark, or the name of the beast, or the number of his name.

Thank you for the advice on how to see it but I wasn't asking how to reason it's meaning,rather his opinion of it. Do you have an opinion of which it is you did not give it?

We follow the formula for rightly dividing the parables .Not only was it sent inspired from heaven but is interpreted by using the temporal things seen to give us the vision of faith the unseen eternal .

The law of interpretation must be applied if we are to rightly divide the parables.

Its not a game of peek a boo. Now you see the church now you do not. .

The problem with those who interpret it as "not a physical, tangible thing" are blatantly ignoring the plain literal meaning of what the scripture is saying and replacing it with symbolism or allegory, when there is nothing in the context that would lead the reader to even pursue those interpretations. In other words, the forcing those interpretations without any basis for doing so.

Where in Scripture is anything called, "the formula for rightly dividing the parables" or "the law of interpretation"?

That is the natural results of those reckoned as faithless. Those who literalize the signified understanding in parables. Teaching others to make the signified understanding of faith without effect.

Once a person does do the work God requires of rightly dividing the parable (Revelation 20) everything else falls into place

No disappearing of saints only later to come out of hiding.

Revelation 1 King James Version (KJV) 1 The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:

Take the fact that he sent and signified it away .Then making saints disappear is easy. Just close ones eyes and use ones imagination .

2 Corinthians 4:18 While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal.

or like when our One Good Master as Lord rebuked Satan by giving word to the Son of man/ peter di not apply the law of rightfully diving parables. The father through the Son of man forgave Peter of his blasphemy .Those who literalize the things seen and do not mix faith

Then Peter took him, and began to rebuke him, saying, Be it far from thee, Lord: this shall not be unto thee. But he turned, and said unto Peter, Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.Math 16 ;22-23

Things of men the temporal. Things of God eternal. Not a secret formula .

I have to agree with everything garee said, although I (being a different person, of course...) would have used different words.

This life--these tangible things, that we see with our eyes: *THIS* is the allegory. The eternal, the unseen, the spiritual: *THAT* is the literal. People get that backwards all the time. Jesus' parables use tangible things we can see and understand to illustrate the things we don't understand--but which really matter. e.g. When Jesus told the Parable of the Vineyard, He wasn't using heavenly things to illustrate the situation of the vineyard owner down the street. He was using a vineyard to illustrate Heaven.

The key to understanding the symbolism in Revelation and of the Mark of the Beast is to be honest with yourselves, to try and pry out what *GOD* is really telling us in His word. Just to wave your hand and say, "It's symbolic"--and then proceed to interpret in pretty much whatever you want it to say--that is not honest interpretation. When people strictly adhere to literal interpretation wherever they can--while I do think they are honestly trying--I think they are introducing error in the path they are going down. The spiritual thing the symbolism stands for *IS* the literal.

This life--these tangible things, that we see with our eyes: *THIS* is the allegory. The eternal, the unseen, the spiritual: *THAT* is the literal. People get that backwards all the time. Jesus' parables use tangible things we can see and understand to illustrate the things we don't understand--but which really matter. e.g. When Jesus told the Parable of the Vineyard, He wasn't using heavenly things to illustrate the situation of the vineyard owner down the street. He was using a vineyard to illustrate Heaven.

Just to wave your hand and say, "It's symbolic"--and then proceed to interpret in pretty much whatever you want it to say--that is not honest interpretation.

When people strictly adhere to literal interpretation wherever they can--while I do think they are honestly trying--I think they are introducing error in the path they are going down. The spiritual thing the symbolism stands for *IS* the literal.

No, He was using a vineyard to represent Israel... both physical, real-world 'things'. Parables do use earthly, physical things to illustrate spiritual truths, but that doesn't mean that this physical world is an "allegory".


Unfortunately, that seems to be Garee's approach.
.

Let me ask you then in Revelation 13:15 https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Revelation+13:15&version=KJV if they worship the image they are dead spiritually but if they do not worship the image then they are not spiritually dead right? If then they are not spiritually killed by the two horned beast then the manner in which the two horned beast kills them for not worshiping the image is then literal right?

And mine.

Garree's approach is correct. Jesus explicitly says the vineyard represents the Kingdom of Heaven. Matthew 20:1 is very specific about it:

20 “For the kingdom of heaven is like a landowner who went out early in the morning to hire workers for his vineyard."

So the fact that you are claiming the vineyard is Israel--or anything other than what Jesus explicitly said it was--undermines your credibility, in my book.