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The great tribulation happened in the 1st century AD.
Mat 24:21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
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Mat 24:34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.
Mat 24:21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
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Mat 24:34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.
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The "man of sin and "the anti-christ" have become conflated and confused" in some theologies.
2 Th 2:3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
1 John 2:18 (Young's Literal) Little youths, it is the last hour; and even as ye heard that the antichrist doth come, even now antichrists have become many -- whence we know that it is the last hour.
Notice how John says "now antichrists have become many", the man of sin would most likely be considered one of the many antichrists.
2 Th 2:3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
1 John 2:18 (Young's Literal) Little youths, it is the last hour; and even as ye heard that the antichrist doth come, even now antichrists have become many -- whence we know that it is the last hour.
Notice how John says "now antichrists have become many", the man of sin would most likely be considered one of the many antichrists.
From curiosity of how you worded this do you see the MoS and the term antichrist the same(meaning the same individual spoken of) or is MoS and antichrist two different things?
I'll explain a little as to why I ask,,,that is In Revelation 17:7 the angel ask John why he marveled and then tells him that he would explain these things to him(John) as if he did not fully understand this at that point...
So there's John 1,2,3 and the Gospel of John so why does John (not understand) who or what these things are in Rev.17:7 when he seems to understand it(antichrist) when he writes John 2,3 ?
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Good questions Bro - in regards to the man of sin in Paul as "against" John's anti-Christ(s) I can't say for sure if John was implying the same person - I tend to think not.
Rev 17:6 And I saw the woman drunken with the blood of the saints, and with the blood of the martyrs of Jesus: and when I saw her, I wondered with great admiration.
Rev 17:7 And the angel said unto me, Wherefore didst thou marvel? I will tell thee the mystery of the woman, and of the beast that carrieth her, which hath the seven heads and ten horns.
John most likely when not in his visionary state would have not been "surprised" at the identities of the woman and the beast, I think the overwhelming power of the visions is why he "wondered", this would probably have been a similar "effect" when John "fell at his feet as dead"
Rev 1:17 And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last:
Rev 17:6 And I saw the woman drunken with the blood of the saints, and with the blood of the martyrs of Jesus: and when I saw her, I wondered with great admiration.
Rev 17:7 And the angel said unto me, Wherefore didst thou marvel? I will tell thee the mystery of the woman, and of the beast that carrieth her, which hath the seven heads and ten horns.
John most likely when not in his visionary state would have not been "surprised" at the identities of the woman and the beast, I think the overwhelming power of the visions is why he "wondered", this would probably have been a similar "effect" when John "fell at his feet as dead"
Rev 1:17 And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last:
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lol, it just jumps out at me that most theological opinions list his Gospel then John 1,2,3 and then Revelation in the order they think they were written. In Revelation he needs to have it explained to him as if he don't get it, but in John 1&2 he don't as if he does understand it and is in fact explaining it(Chicken or the egg?). So how can he explain the antichrist in one book and after this have it explained to him as if he didn't understand if they are the same?
I think you have to take into account the visionary/narrative nature of his revelation.
2 John 1:7 For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist.
I don't find any mention of antichrist in John's third letter.
2 John 1:7 For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist.
I don't find any mention of antichrist in John's third letter.
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