The Bookends

This is deep

This is deep, but He did say he is the Alpha and Omega, the beginning and end, first and last , so similarity at the beginning and end makes sense . Also the timing of the feasts cast serious doubt on a rapture years before His second coming, since He 'fulfilled' the spring feasts during His first coming in chronological order and within a matter of days, He will 'fulfill' the fall feasts the same way.

Thanks for catching my typo

Right! I believe Jesus will fulfill 100% the Fall Feasts for His Second Coming just as He fulfilled 100% the Spring Feast. I’ve heard teaching that they are called moedim and that means rehearsals.

This is deep, but He did say he is the Alpha and Omega, the beginning and end, first and last , so similarity at the beginning and end makes sense . Also the timing of the feasts cast serious doubt on a rapture years before His second coming, since He 'fulfilled' the spring feasts during His first coming in chronological order and within a matter of days, He will 'fulfill' the fall feasts the same way.

[pre-tribber, here ]

As for the bolded portion ^ , this statement of yours seems to be assuming a few things; so consider these:

--in Lk22:30,16,18 Jesus states, "I will not any more eat thereof [that is, of the passover (v.15)] UNTIL it BE FULFILLED in the kingdom of God..." [v.18 says (regarding His 'I will not drink of the fruit of the vine...') "until the kingdom of God shall come..."; see also Matthew 26:29]

--your scenario seems to assume a "fall-to-fall" tribulation period [aka the 70th-Wk/7-yrs], but I believe the scriptural evidence shows it more likely to be a "spring-to-spring" span of duration (thus ending in the spring of the year-set [of 7 yrs]), rather than "fall-to-fall" as is commonly supposed

--your scenario [possibly] assumes that Matthew 24:36 [and thus any of the Olivet Discourse context] refers to "the rapture," whereas I believe its context is His Second Coming to the earth; therefore, if this phrase in v.36 is indeed an "idiom" (referring to the fall feast of Rosh Hashanah, as some suggest), then since the context refers to His Second coming to the earth (and events surrounding THAT), it is NOT alluding to (nor pointing toward) our Rapture (but something else)

GRACEANDTRUTH IS HOLDING HER HEAD BEFORE THE TOP BLOWS OFF

I think I confused you, 70 weeks is not found in Revelation, Matthew or Leviticus 23 (Feast Days). It's logical to postulate He will fulfill the remaining Feast Days the same way He did previously, within days. So Feast of Trumpets (rapture), 10 days later, Day of Atonement (2nd Coming), 5 days later Feast of Tabernacles (2nd Kingdom)

I'm not asking you to believe there's a future "7-yrs/70th-Wk" [though Revelation 1:1 DOES state: "things which must come to pass [like 4:1, the future things] IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]…," not things which transpire over a long duration of time], I'm just saying, regarding the other aspects of my post (if they relate to your scenario), that as a pre-tribber (I realize you are not one), you might want to consider these...

i.e. my first point had to do with the words "fulfilled" (when) and "eat [of the passover]"

Well I think the Jesus quote from Matthew referred to His impending death on the cross, so they don't apply to an event that has yet to occur.

May I ask why you are a pre tribulation believer when there are numerous Bible verses discussing 1) the blessings of tribulations or 2) the guarentee of endure tribulations (John 16:33, Acts 14:22, Romans 5:3; 12:12, II Cor 7:4, I Thes 3:4, II Thes 1:6). Revelation 2:10 states the church at Smyrna would endure tribulation for 10 days, which fits in with the fall feast days...food for thought.

1) the blessings of tribulations

So, I had also put "see also Matthew 26:29" (along with that ^ ); do you see that as also taking place "on the cross," because He said there (Mt26:29): [context vv.19,20] "29 And I say to you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now until that the day when I drink it anew with [G3326 - meth' - accompanying] you in the kingdom of My Father."

Let me ask, do you also believe verse 30 (Lk22) refers to the time surrounding "the Cross" [parallel Matthew 19:28 (see also Matthew 25:31-34 for timing)], or that that is a separate [far-future; "12 thrones"] thing [now, some 12 verses later], that He was [also] speaking to "the 12" about??



I'm not suggesting that "the Church which is His body" is not slated to experience "tribulations" and all sorts of "persecution" [2Th2:4], which has been true for all of its existence on the earth since its beginning [Eph1:20-23 when]; Paul, after all, acknowledged that the Thessalonians had been experiencing that for quite some duration of time already, when he wrote to them correcting their false notion that they were in and experiencing [the false idea that] "the Day of the Lord IS PRESENT". It in fact was not, and he is telling them WHY it is, in fact, NOT present... but that when "the Departure" takes place [the rapture from v.1], AND the "man of sin be revealed" [the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR]" of many more "birth PANGS [PLURAL]" to follow on from THAT ONE] then at that time "the Day of the Lord" WILL INDEED "be present" (to unfold upon the earth over the course of some time, involving ALL that "the man of sin" will DO "in his time" [the "DARK" portion of the entire long "Day of the Lord" span of time]).

you made some good points about Matthew, thanks for sharing