Paul also did not write "the law" where he was talking about not being justified by the law of Moses in verse 28. Also in verses 20 and 21. So we know the absence of 'the' does not make 'law' mean something other than 'the law of Moses'.
It's impossible to make the plain words go away: In context, the 'law' that is upheld by faith is the law of Moses. I'm done with making the Bible not really mean what it says in order to protect a predetermined doctrine. I was called out on it, realized the deceitful error I was making, and quit doing it. The church has done much damage to the Christian faith by doing this. I've stopped making my contribution toward that ends. I'm simply not going to do it anymore. The passage says faith upholds the law of Moses and that settles it.
It's impossible to make the plain words go away: In context, the 'law' that is upheld by faith is the law of Moses. I'm done with making the Bible not really mean what it says in order to protect a predetermined doctrine. I was called out on it, realized the deceitful error I was making, and quit doing it. The church has done much damage to the Christian faith by doing this. I've stopped making my contribution toward that ends. I'm simply not going to do it anymore. The passage says faith upholds the law of Moses and that settles it.
It's impossible to accept your interpretation considering the facts that Paul said in 2 Corinthians 3:7 that GOD made void (καταργέω) the 10 commandments and then in Romans 3:31 asks if we make void (καταργέω) the law, and says no. So there's a real contradiction there that you need to address. How can we establish (not make void) something that GOD made void? Paul is either contradicting himself, or Romans 3:31 means something different than what you think, because 2 Corinthians 3:7 is crystal clear..