Mark 16:9

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Elin

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It is not recorded anywhere in the Word that the earliest Christians, pre-Roman, called the first day of the week the Lord's Day. The earliest Christians would have called it either Yom Rishon or the equivalent in the tongue being spoken.
What about Rev 1:10?
 

JaumeJ

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Jul 2, 2011
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Yes, the reference is to the Lord's Day, which to me is the Day Yahweh chose to keep Holy........the Seventh Day or Shabbat. Here is the quote and there is no actual other definition given for "The Lord's Day." Please think, and please believe Jesus Christ.


Rev 1:10
I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,


Rev 1:11
Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and senditunto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.

What about Rev 1:10?
 

Elin

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Rev 1:10
I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet


the reference is to the Lord's Day, which to me is the Day Yahweh chose to keep Holy........the Seventh Day or Shabbat. Here is the quote and there is no actual other definition given for "The Lord's Day." Please think, and please believe Jesus Christ.
I don't think so.

Because the word "Lord" in the NT is used chiefly of the Son, not of the Father.

And there is the testimony that Christians met on the first day of the week for the Lord's Supper (Ac 20:7).

There is also testimony they took up collections when they met on the first day of the week (1Co 16:2).

There is much Biblical evidence that the Lord's Day was the first day of the week in the NT.
 

rstrats

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Aug 28, 2011
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Elin,

re: "What about Rev 1:10?"

What is your point in asking that question?



re: "And there is the testimony that Christians met on the first day of the week for the Lord's Supper (Ac 20:7)."

Actually, as far as the Bible is concerned, there are only two times mentioned with regard to anybody getting together on the first (day) of the week - John 20:19 and Acts 20:7. There is never any mention of them ever again being together on the first. The John reference has them together in a closed room after the crucifixion because they were afraid of their fellow Jews. Nothing is said about a celebration, worship service or day of rest. The Acts reference has them together most likely because Paul happened to be in town and he wanted to talk to them before he had to leave again. The breaking of bread mentioned (even if it were referring to the Lord's Supper) had nothing to do with placing a special emphasis on the first (day) because Acts 2:46 says that they broke bread every day.



re: "There is also testimony they took up collections when they met on the first day of the week (1Co 16:2)."

There is nothing in that scripture that says anything about meeting together on the first day of the week. The text merely says that everyone should "lay by him in store" on the first day of the week. The Darby Translation reads: "On the first of the week let each of you put by at home, laying up in whatever degree he may have prospered, that there may be no collections when I come.". The New Swedish and Norwegian Bibles read: "At home by himself." The Lamsa Translation reads: "Let each of you put aside and keep in his house". The Wemouth reads: "Let each of you put on one side and store up at his home". Ballantine's Translation reads: "Let each of you lay up at home". The Syriac, on this passage reads: "Let every one of you lay aside and preserve at home" , and the New Catholic Edition of the Bible reads: ".......let each one of you put aside at home and lay up whatever he has a mind to". This verse says nothing about going to church on the first day or even assembling together on the first day.



re: "There is much Biblical evidence that the Lord's Day was the first day of the week in the NT."

I'm not aware of a single scripture that ever refers to the first day of the week as the "Lord's Day". What do you have in mind?
 
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NickInCali,

re: "Historically Christians have referred to the fact of Christ's resurrection being on Sunday because it was called the ‘Lord's Day’ by the earliest Christians..."

But not by any of the earliest Christians mentioned in scripture.
 


re: "...it is the ‘third day’ counting from the crucifixion on Friday..."

It is an assumption that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week. In fact, Matthew 12:40 and Luke 24:21 indicate that it couldn’t have taken place any earlier than the 5th day.
 


re: "...and it is the day on which the earliest Christians began regularly worshipping."

There is no definitive scripture that says that anyone worshiped on the first day of the week, much less that they did it on a regular basis.
 


re: "Mark 16 is certainly not an isolated text..."

But it is. Mark 16:9 is the only scripture (as translated in the KJV) that definitively says that the resurrection occurred on the first of the week.
 


Do you have any information with regard to an author as requested in the OP?
I was just reading about this section of Mark. Not necessarily concerning Mark 16:9 but the last 12 verses of Mark but concerning baptism and salvation. Here are some authors listed that have some notes on Mark 16:9-20 being added at a later date. . .

B.F. Wescott and F.A. Hort Introduction to the New Testament in the Original Greek, Appendix 1, pp 29-51
Bratcher and Nida, A Translator's Handbook on the Gospel of Mark, pp. 506-522
Roger Omanson, A Textual Guide to the Greek New Testament
William Lane, The New International Commentary on the New Testament: The Gospel of Mark.
Bruce Metzger, A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, pp. 102,103

Hope this helps in your study.
 

Elin

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Jan 19, 2013
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Elin,

re: "What about Rev 1:10?"

What is your point in asking that question?
I'll let you tackle that one.

re: "And there is the testimony that Christians met on the first day of the week for the Lord's Supper (Ac 20:7)."

Actually, as far as the Bible is concerned, there are only two times mentioned with regard to anybody getting together on the first (day) of the week - John 20:19 and Acts 20:7.
Does your Bible not have 1Co 16:2?

The Acts reference has them together most likely because Paul happened to be in town and he wanted to talk to them before he had to leave again.
Is that Scripture talking, or you talking?

The breaking of bread mentioned (even if it were referring to the Lord's Supper) had nothing to do with placing a special emphasis on the first (day) because Acts 2:46 says that they broke bread every day.
No, it doesn't.

They met in the Temple courts every day.

They broke bread in their homes, and it does not state how often they did it.

re: "There is also testimony they took up collections when they met on the first day of the week (1Co 16:2)."

There is nothing in that scripture that says anything about meeting together on the first day of the week. The text merely says that everyone should "lay by him in store" on the first day of the week.
Gee, wonder why the first day of the week is even mentioned then.
They could lay by store any day of the week.
Why Sunday?

Every Sunday they were to bring what they had set aside for the Lord's work, so it could be collected at the worship service, not at home.

Justin Martyr's Apology, 1. 67-68, indicates that in his time (c. 150 AD) offerings were brought to the church on Sundays.

But don't let the evidence affect you.

re: "There is much Biblical evidence that the Lord's Day was the first day of the week in the NT."

I'm not aware of a single scripture that ever refers to the first day of the week as the "Lord's Day". What do you have in mind?
I have in mind three things:

1) correct hermeneutics that doesn't require a simple declarative English sentence to establish what the Scriptures mean;

2) for Scripture does not state: "God is sovereign," but it is nevertheless the testimony throughout Scripture (Da 4:35; Ro 9:16-19); and

3) your theology is driving the meaning of Scripture, instead of Scripture driving the meaning of your theology.
 

JaumeJ

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Jul 2, 2011
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One may think, one may vote, one may agree with others, one may organize a synod, one may call for a conclave, one may believe anything man says, but taking up a collection on the first day of the week is not saying the Lord's Day is the first day of the week. Of course the Lord is Jesus; Jesus, the Father, and the Holy Spirit are One. There is nothing written stating the Lord's Day was changed from the Seventh Day to the First except by man, and that centuries after Christ. You have many folks who agree with you, but the Lord's Day is the Sabbath given in the Word, not by traditions of man.
I don't think so.

Because the word "Lord" in the NT is used chiefly of the Son, not of the Father.

And there is the testimony that Christians met on the first day of the week for the Lord's Supper (Ac 20:7).

There is also testimony they took up collections when they met on the first day of the week (1Co 16:2).

There is much Biblical evidence that the Lord's Day was the first day of the week in the NT.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
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One may think, one may vote, one may agree with others, one may organize a synod, one may call for a conclave, one may believe anything man says, but taking up a collection on the first day of the week is not saying the Lord's Day is the first day of the week. Of course the Lord is Jesus; Jesus, the Father, and the Holy Spirit are One. There is nothing written stating the Lord's Day was changed from the Seventh Day to the First except by man, and that centuries after Christ. You have many folks who agree with you, but the Lord's Day is the Sabbath given in the Word, not by traditions of man.
You assume the Lord's day refers to the Father, when in NT usage, it chiefly refers to the Son.

That, in addition to the other texts provided, is more evidence in the NT for the first day of the week than is found for the last day of the week.

But don't let the evidence affect you.
 

JaumeJ

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Jul 2, 2011
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The assumption here is that the Lord's Day is changed to the first day of the week in the Word. It is not. As for the Son being the Lord, of course He is. In the beginning was the Word, the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He made all that is, and when He finished creating He designated the Seventh Day as the Day of Rest with Him. Now, with the new covenant as people understand it, there is no problem with some observing the Sabbath on Sunday by the dictate of the Catholic Church, however for anyone to say God changed the order of things is not true. He is the same today, yesterday and forever.
If you think it foreign to your faith to celebrate the Sabbath on the same day as did our Lord, Jesus, this is yours, and many others' choice, no condemnation, but never say God changed the order or seasons. He is consistent, while man is not.
You assume the Lord's day refers to the Father, when in NT usage, it chiefly refers to the Son.

That, in addition to the other texts provided, is more evidence in the NT for the first day of the week than is found for the last day of the week.

But don't let the evidence affect you.
 

rstrats

Senior Member
Aug 28, 2011
744
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Elin,

re: "Does your Bible not have 1Co 16:2?"

You know darn well it does, and it doesn't say that anyone assembled together on the first of the week. Your theology is driving scripture to say something that it doesn't say.





re: "No, it doesn't. They met in the Temple courts every day. They broke bread in their homes, and it does not state how often they did it."

Acts 2:46 - "And day by day, attending the temple together and breaking bread in their homes, they received their food with glad and generous hearts" (ESV) So you can see that this scripture says that day by day they attended the temple together AND broke bread in their homes.




re: "Gee, wonder why the first day of the week is even mentioned then. They could lay by store any day of the week. Why Sunday?"

I don't know. Scripture doesn't say.





re: " Justin Martyr's Apology, 1. 67-68, indicates that in his time (c. 150 AD) offerings were brought to the church on Sundays."

Justin Martyr's Apology isn't scripture. Whatever he says men were doing in the second century doesn't prove that it was scriptural.




re: "correct hermeneutics that doesn't require a simple declarative English sentence to establish what the Scriptures mean..."

Perhaps not, but it does need some sort of scriptural support, and there is none that supports the idea that Revelation 1:10 is referring to a day of the week, much less to the first day of the week.
 

rstrats

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Aug 28, 2011
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Since it's been awhile, perhaps someone new looking in might know of an author.
 

mailmandan

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Apr 7, 2014
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I don't think so.

Because the word "Lord" in the NT is used chiefly of the Son, not of the Father.

And there is the testimony that Christians met on the first day of the week for the Lord's Supper (Ac 20:7).

There is also testimony they took up collections when they met on the first day of the week (1Co 16:2).

There is much Biblical evidence that the Lord's Day was the first day of the week in the NT.
Amen! - 7-lords-day.htm
 

rstrats

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Aug 28, 2011
744
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Since it has again been awhile, someone new visiting this topic may know of an author.
 

rstrats

Senior Member
Aug 28, 2011
744
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So far no one yet, but there still could be someone looking in in the future who does.