J
James456
Guest
I think in relation to the verses I quoted it goes much deeper than thatTrans:
In Christianity, in Catholic theology, it is the weak human nature that brings man to commit sin...
of any type it might be.
I think in relation to the verses I quoted it goes much deeper than thatTrans:
In Christianity, in Catholic theology, it is the weak human nature that brings man to commit sin...
of any type it might be.
Right that’s the old covenant between God and Israel mediated by Moses for thier land inheritance which was delivered to them.I don't make the rules GWH
I do repeat them.
There's a lot on the internet regarding the different categories of Law in the OT.
The separate categories could be looked up.
I found the following, but didn't take the time to get the best explanation...but this looks pretty good..
and even speaks to some on this thread that seem to feel that the actual Mosaic Laws must be followed,,,which is a pretty silly idea, if I may say so.
https://www.trusting-in-jesus.com/Old-Testament-Law.html
https://rlsolberg.com/the-moral-ceremonial-laws/
I think in relation to the verses I quoted it goes much deeper than that
I never stated that Paul used these categories.I used to use those categories, but sin then I've found major problems with using them, so I no longer use them, but I did not claim that they do not exist. There are many ways that that God's laws could potentially be categorized and all of those categories exist, but just because there are scholars who think that it makes sense to categorize God's laws in a particular manner does not establish that Paul also categorized God's laws in the same manner.
Paul does not enter into this discussion.For example, if one scholar through that a set of 137 of God's laws could all be considered to be part of one category, but Paul never considered there to be a category that had exactly that set of 137 laws, then they would be in error to interpret Paul as referring to that category.
It is one thing to claim that Christian scholars agree on everything already and quote another thing to demonstrate that to be true. If you think that Christian scholars agree on everything, then you clearly have no idea no understanding of Christian scholarship.[/QUOTE]The fact that something being a civil or ceremonial law doesn't mean that is not also a moral law is another problem that I have with those categories.
it's those such as yourself that are attempting to change what has been known for two millennia.
Yes sir...Christianity is about following what Christ taught, so me taking the position that Christians should follow what Christ taught is not trying to change Christianity into anything.
Of course my reply answers your question.Saying you were taught to do that and that you trust what you were taught does not answer my question.
I'll be you've been asked this before......I grew up being taught by by Christian religion to have a negative view of obeying the Law of Moses. However, the Psalms express an extremely positive view of obeying the Law of Moses, such as with David repeatedly saying that he loved it and delighted in obeying it, so I realized that if I was going to continue to believe that the Psalms are Scripture, then I needed to also believe that they expressed a correct view of obeying it. For example, in Psalm 1:1-2, blessed are those who delight in the Law of the Lord and who meditate on it day and night, so I could not continue to believe in the truth of those words as Scripture while not allowing them to shape my view of obeying the Law of Moses. Moreover, the authors of the NT should be interpreted in light of the fact that they were in complete agreement with the Psalms rather that as expressing views that are incompatible with the truth of what they considered to be Scripture, especially because Paul also said that he delighted in obeying it (Romans 7:22), which led me to see how I had been taught to systematically interpret the NT with a negative slant towards obeying the Law of Moses and question whether what I had been taught was correct.
Yes sir.I think in relation to the verses I quoted it goes much deeper than that
Hi PilgrimshopeRight that’s the old covenant between God and Israel mediated by Moses for thier land inheritance which was delivered to them.
“Now therefore hearken, O Israel, unto the statutes and unto the judgments, which I teach you, for to do them, that ye may live, and go in and possess the land which the LORD God of your fathers giveth you. Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.
Behold, I ( Moses ) have taught you statutes and judgments, even as the LORD my God commanded me, that ye should do so in the land whither ye go to possess it. And he declared unto you his covenant, which he commanded you to perform, even ten commandments; and he wrote them upon two tables of stone. And the LORD commanded me at that time to teach you statutes and judgments, that ye might do them in the land whither ye go over to possess it.”
Deuteronomy 4:1-2, 5, 13-14 KJV
“What thing soever I command you, observe to do it: thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it.”
Deuteronomy 12:32 KJV
“These are the statutes and judgments, which ye shall observe to do in the land, which the LORD God of thy fathers giveth thee to possess it, all the days that ye live upon the earth.”
Deuteronomy 12:1 KJV
And it came to pass, when ye heard the voice out of the midst of the darkness, (for the mountain did burn with fire,) that ye came near unto me, ( Moses is speaking ) even all the heads of your tribes, and your elders; and ye said, Behold, the LORD our God hath shewed us his glory and his greatness, and we have heard his voice out of the midst of the fire: we have seen this day that God doth talk with man, and he liveth. Now therefore why should we die? for this great fire will consume us: if we hear the voice of the LORD our God any more, then we shall die. Go thou near, and hear all that the LORD our God shall say: and speak thou unto us all that the LORD our God shall speak unto thee; and we will hear it, and do it.
And the LORD heard the voice of your words, when ye spake unto me; and the LORD said unto me, I have heard the voice of the words of this people, which they have spoken unto thee: they have well said all that they have spoken.”
Deuteronomy 5:1-2, 22-25, 27-28 KJV
James came to mind when I was writing to the other member but didn't have enough time to look it up.“but every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. Do not err, my beloved brethren.”
James 1:14-16 KJV
I would tend to go more by the dictionaries than by a catholic document. They may have reasons for explaining it as they doJames came to mind when I was writing to the other member but didn't have enough time to look it up.
Yes, lust bring forth sin.
Any type of lust.
In modern parlance it has come to be understood as only one type...
but biblically it could mean any lust.
And how would the human mind react to a belief, if the above was committed in the mind it could send a person to hell?“but every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. Do not err, my beloved brethren.”
James 1:14-16 KJV
That's good, one of the main point that I've been trying to make is that we should not interpret the authors of the Bible as referring to categories that we have created. For example, a scholar who created a category of 137 laws has no grounds for interpreting people who never used that category as referring to it as being abolished.I never stated that Paul used these categories.
They are MAN-MADE by scholars to distinguish between the Laws - for whatever reason they find necessary.
If Christ taught the opposite of what Christianity teaches, then should we follow Christ or Christianity?Yes sir...
you're attempting to change what the Christian RELIGION teaches by denying what it teaches with the OPPOSITE of its doctrine.
YOU are trying to teach that Christians are to follow the Law of Moses.
The Christian religion teaches that the Law of Moses is dead.
See? It's the opposite of what Christianity teaches.
I do not eat pork, there is no Temple, there is no Sanhedrin, and I do keep all of God's festivals, including the Sabbath.I'll be you've been asked this before......
DO YOU EAT PORK?
DO YOU SACRIFICE ANIMALS TO YOUR GOD?
STONED ANYBODY LATELY?
KEEP ALL THE JEWISH FESITVALS? INCLUDING THE SABBATH?
So much more...
you get the idea.
You trust a dictionary...which will give a secular meaning....I would tend to go more by the dictionaries than by a catholic document. They may have reasons for explaining it as they do
I would trust multiple dictionaries rather than a catholic document, yesYou trust a dictionary...which will give a secular meaning....
more than the religion that INVENTED the term?
OK.
That's good, one of the main point that I've been trying to make is that we should not interpret the authors of the Bible as referring to categories that we have created. For example, a scholar who created a category of 137 laws has no grounds for interpreting people who never used that category as referring to it as being abolished.
If Christ taught the opposite of what Christianity teaches, then should we follow Christ or Christianity?
I do not eat pork, there is no Temple, there is no Sanhedrin, and I do keep all of God's festivals, including the Sabbath.
Sounds like you hate the people who gave you the religion you're practicing today!I would trust multiple dictionaries rather than a catholic document, yes
Gentiles have a license to sin?Quick poll to anyone in this thread.
It is by the Law of Moses that we have knowledge of what sin is (Romans 3:20), so which position gives Gentiles a license to sin?:
1.) The Jerusalem Council required to Gentiles to refrain from doing what the Law of Moses reveals to be sin.
2.) The Jerusalem Council permitted Gentile to do what the Law of Moses reveals to be sin,
Well if the entire law of moses gives us knowledge of what sin is, I could not be in a saved state. For God writes His laws in our minds and places them on our hearts at conversion. And Through the law we become conscious of sin, as you quotedQuick poll to anyone in this thread.
It is by the Law of Moses that we have knowledge of what sin is (Romans 3:20), so which position gives Gentiles a license to sin?:
1.) The Jerusalem Council required to Gentiles to refrain from doing what the Law of Moses reveals to be sin.
2.) The Jerusalem Council permitted Gentile to do what the Law of Moses reveals to be sin,
Not at all, but they may be uncomfortable with what was being stated in the verse, so they are slanted in their view concerning interpretationSounds like you hate the people who gave you the religion you're practicing today!
Odd.
The reason hes put that up is, I explained to him, if his views are correct, the leaders of the first century church, at the council of Jerusalem must have given gentiles a licence to sin as they only asked gentiles to follow four mosaic laws. He disputes that is trueGentiles have a license to sin?
It's an interesting concept.Not at all, but they may be uncomfortable with what was being stated in the verse, so they are slanted in their view concerning interpretation
Ive lived in a predominantly catholic community, nice people