If Paul actually taught the Torah had been abolished, and all are now under grace, explain the following.
Romans 7
3 So then if, while [her] husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress:
but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.
Paul confirms the 3rd Commandment! Paul confirms -- adultery is Sin! How can this be -- If Torah had been abolished? Why would Paul be teaching “gentiles” in Rome, adultery is Sin?
12 Wherefore the law [is] holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good.
Where are the commandments found, in the Torah? Thus, the word “Law” as used by Paul -- is Torah. Why, to Gentiles, is this taught?
Why would Christ or His Father allow to be abolished, what even Paul states is; “HOLY Just and Good”, What was established at THE Beginning as The WAY God judged in “Righteousness”, the world?
Where is it written Paul Is allowed to change, what had been in place for 4000 years? And Why Paul and not Jesus Christ, the Law giver?
NKJV Romans 3
9 What then? Are we (Jews) better than they? Not at all. For we have “”previously”’ charged both Jews and Greeks --- that they are all under sin.
Thus; From the mouth of Paul,,, both Jews and Greeks are --- “Under” the penalty of death for their sins – which IS the transgression of the Torah. 1 John 3: 4.
If the Torah - had been - abolished, how is it possible for Paul to make this statement ?
Some on this blog have stated the Gentiles are not subject to the Torah, only Jews must obey the Torah. That is not what Paul explains to Roman gentiles.
Sorry, Sin remains the transgression of the Torah, according to Paul and is not abolished.
Paul did not state that the Law no longer has value or applies in any way.
He explained that the Old Covenant was superceded by the BETTER Covenant.
Israel and Judah failed to keep the old covenant and was under a curse from God.
Even the most humble man of a generation, Moses, broke the law.