Acts 2:38 Comparison: Evangelical vs. Oneness / Baptismal-Regeneration View

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
I appreciate the engagement, but each of your "The claim:" lines misstate what I actually wrote. Let me clarify the categories so the discussion stays anchored in the text rather than in assumptions.

Baptism is merely a Jewish mikveh for ceremonial purification:
What I actually argued is that baptism originated in Jewish purification categories — which is historically & textually undeniable (Ex 30; Lev 14–16; John 3:25). That does not mean baptism is "merely" anything. It means the framework the apostles used was the one they inherited. Aphesis names the result, not the mechanism. Jesus' blood causes remission (Matt 26:28; Heb 9:22). Baptism signifies repentance & purification (Mark 1:4 & Acts 19:4). Same word, different cause

The calling in Acts 22:16 is the only operative action"
That's not what I said. I said the grammar makes the means explicit: "Be baptized" - the purification act, "Wash away your sins" - the imagery, "Calling on His name" - the effective means (participle of means). Paul's sins were washed away the same way Peter preached in Acts 10:43 - by believing in Christ, not by water.

Nothing external removes sin: Correct - because Hebrews explicitly says so (Heb 9:9–10). The "bodies washed with pure water" in Heb 10:22 is Levitical consecration imagery (Ex 29:4 & Lev 8:6), not a sacramental command. Hebrews’ entire argument is that external washings cannot cleanse the conscience. Only Christ’s blood does that.

Water represents only judgment: I never said "only." I said Peter identifies the water of the flood as judgment & the ark as salvation - which is exactly what the text says. Saved through water" (dia) means "through the ordeal," not "by means of water." Peter immediately clarifies that baptism saves not by the removal of dirt from the flesh, but by the appeal to God (1 Pet 3:21). The saving agent is the appeal, not the water.

The Gentile timeline proves baptism was a Jewish‑only ritual." This is the one point that needs correction, because it is not what I wrote. My point was: Baptism began in Jewish purification categories & was practiced in that framework until Gentiles were brought in.

I explicitly affirmed: Gentiles were baptized (Acts 10:47–48), Baptism is for "all nations" (Matt 28:19), And Acts 10 is decisive because the Gentiles received the Spirit before water - the same pattern as Acts 2"1-4 God Himself separates Spirit‑giving from water baptism in both the Jewish & Gentile inaugurations. The timeline establishes origin & context, not exclusivity.


I really have no idea why you would claim the Gentiles were reborn before they were baptized in JESUS name to remove their sins.

Your claiming that a person can be reborn without getting rid of any sins at all.

It's clear sin will not enter heaven!!

It's also clear JESUS said we need BOTH TO ENTER in John 3:5.

BUT if you claim they were, at what point was the Samaritans reborn in Acts 8? They were baptized then received the Holy Ghost days maybe weeks later?

How about in Acts 19? at what point were they reborn? They were baptized in JESUS name and received the Holy Ghost seconds later.
 
How do you read Acts 11:15... when Peter explains Acts10?
Acts 11:15 And as I began to speak, the Holy Ghost fell on them, as on us at the beginning. As on us (the Apostles) in the beginning (Acts 2:4) 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.Acts 2:16 But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel; Joel 2:29 And also upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out my spirit.

Acts 10:44 While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,

These two times is it ever recorded as coming upon anyone in this manner. Never again do we read of it happening as this. This is not the promise of the holy ghost as in Acts 2:38,39. This was never ever promised to all. This was only a fulfillment of the prophesy of Joel. Anytime we see the power given past these two times it is by the layin on of the Apostles hand and the reason is given in Mark 16:17-20.
 
If eternal life only begins after death, then no one in John's Gospel HAS eternal life, no one "has passed from death to life" & Jesus' promises collapse into conditional probation instead of present salvation. John's entire Holy‑Spirit‑inspired argument falls apart under that view.

What you said is not what the Bible says. You claimed, "The Bible teaches we can fall from grace," but you didn't cite a single verse. There's a reason for that.

Paul explains that someone "falls from grace" when they turn from Christ to the Law as a means of justification.

It is not about losing salvation, failing to endure, sinning too much, or dying out of favor. It is about abandoning grace for law‑keeping.

The "fall" is a shift from the grace‑system to the law‑system, not from salvation to damnation.

The Law demands works to access blessings. Grace supplies blessings & gifts freely through faith. I embrace the latter.
You said
What you said is not what the Bible says. You claimed, "The Bible teaches we can fall from grace," but you didn't cite a single verse. There's a reason for that.

Galatians 5:4 Hebrews 12:15 Hebrews 6:4-6 2 Peter 2:20,21

There for a start there are many more saying we have to stay the coarse if you need more.
 
You said
What you said is not what the Bible says. You claimed, "The Bible teaches we can fall from grace," but you didn't cite a single verse. There's a reason for that.

Galatians 5:4 Hebrews 12:15 Hebrews 6:4-6 2 Peter 2:20,21

There for a start there are many more saying we have to stay the coarse if you need more.

Before we go any further, I need you to address the actual issue I raised - because everything else depends on it.

Jesus makes "repeated present‑tense salvation statements" "that your view cannot accommodate."

Jn 5:24 > has eternal life, has passed from death to life, shall not come into condemnation.
Jn 6:47 > he who believes has eternal life.
Jn 10:28 > I give them eternal life & they shall never perish.

These are not future‑tense hopes. They are not conditional promises. They are not probationary statements. They are not "after death" realities.

They are present‑tense realities Jesus declares about believers right now. So here is the question you must answer for your view to stand: Do believers in Jn 5:24 / 6:47 / 10:28 already HAVE eternal life now, or do they not? There are only two possible answers:

A) If you say "Yes, they already have it," then your claim that eternal life only begins after death is false & your entire argument collapses.

B) If you say "No, they do not have it yet," then Jesus' statements are false when He speaks them & Jn's entire salvation framework collapses.

This is the core issue. Everything else is a distraction until you answer this.

Heb 6 doesn't redefine Jn's grammar. Heb 12 doesn't redefine Jn's grammar. 2 Pet 2 doesn't redefine Jn's grammar. Gal 5:4 already defines its own category.

But none of those passages overturn Jesus' repeated present‑tense declarations. So again & this is the question your system must answer: Does the believer HAVE eternal life now (as Jesus says), or only after death (as you say)? There is no middle ground. Your answer determines which system collapses.
 
Before we go any further, I need you to address the actual issue I raised - because everything else depends on it.

Jesus makes "repeated present‑tense salvation statements" "that your view cannot accommodate."

Jn 5:24 > has eternal life, has passed from death to life, shall not come into condemnation.
Jn 6:47 > he who believes has eternal life.
Jn 10:28 > I give them eternal life & they shall never perish.

These are not future‑tense hopes. They are not conditional promises. They are not probationary statements. They are not "after death" realities.

They are present‑tense realities Jesus declares about believers right now. So here is the question you must answer for your view to stand: Do believers in Jn 5:24 / 6:47 / 10:28 already HAVE eternal life now, or do they not? There are only two possible answers:

A) If you say "Yes, they already have it," then your claim that eternal life only begins after death is false & your entire argument collapses.

B) If you say "No, they do not have it yet," then Jesus' statements are false when He speaks them & Jn's entire salvation framework collapses.

This is the core issue. Everything else is a distraction until you answer this.

Heb 6 doesn't redefine Jn's grammar. Heb 12 doesn't redefine Jn's grammar. 2 Pet 2 doesn't redefine Jn's grammar. Gal 5:4 already defines its own category.

But none of those passages overturn Jesus' repeated present‑tense declarations. So again & this is the question your system must answer: Does the believer HAVE eternal life now (as Jesus says), or only after death (as you say)? There is no middle ground. Your answer determines which system collapses.
do you really not see that all those passages you cited are dependent upon one believing? What happens if one no longer believes?
 
Before we go any further, I need you to address the actual issue I raised - because everything else depends on it.

Jesus makes "repeated present‑tense salvation statements" "that your view cannot accommodate."

Jn 5:24 > has eternal life, has passed from death to life, shall not come into condemnation.
Jn 6:47 > he who believes has eternal life.
Jn 10:28 > I give them eternal life & they shall never perish.

These are not future‑tense hopes. They are not conditional promises. They are not probationary statements. They are not "after death" realities.

They are present‑tense realities Jesus declares about believers right now. So here is the question you must answer for your view to stand: Do believers in Jn 5:24 / 6:47 / 10:28 already HAVE eternal life now, or do they not? There are only two possible answers:

A) If you say "Yes, they already have it," then your claim that eternal life only begins after death is false & your entire argument collapses.

B) If you say "No, they do not have it yet," then Jesus' statements are false when He speaks them & Jn's entire salvation framework collapses.

This is the core issue. Everything else is a distraction until you answer this.

Heb 6 doesn't redefine Jn's grammar. Heb 12 doesn't redefine Jn's grammar. 2 Pet 2 doesn't redefine Jn's grammar. Gal 5:4 already defines its own category.

But none of those passages overturn Jesus' repeated present‑tense declarations. So again & this is the question your system must answer: Does the believer HAVE eternal life now (as Jesus says), or only after death (as you say)? There is no middle ground. Your answer determines which system collapses.
Let me try to clarify my statement. We have a promise of eternal while we so journey this earth but it is conditional on our walking in the spirit should we walk away then our promise is broken not by God but by us. If we win the prize and die in Gods grace then yes we will never lose eternal life. But while we still walk the path we must keep the faith.


This is the last post on this topic I will make in this thread if you want to discuss it further then start a thread on this topic but for now lets get back to what is being discussed in this title.
 
  • Like
Reactions: Lamar
Let me try to clarify my statement. We have a promise of eternal while we so journey this earth but it is conditional on our walking in the spirit should we walk away then our promise is broken not by God but by us. If we win the prize and die in Gods grace then yes we will never lose eternal life. But while we still walk the path we must keep the faith.


This is the last post on this topic I will make in this thread if you want to discuss it further then start a thread on this topic but for now lets get back to what is being discussed in this title.


Jn 5:24 > """has eternal life""", has passed from death to life, shall not come into condemnation.
Jn 6:47 > """he who believes""" """has eternal life""".
Jn 10:28 > """I JESUS, give them eternal life""" """& they shall never perish."""

BTW you brought this up. All 3 verses JESUS is talking, I believe Him! Why don't you?
 
Re: John5:24
  1. Hearing and believing and having are all present tense.
    1. In order to be having - the man must be hearing and believing - in this grammar of substantival participles, a hearing and believing man
    2. The concept can be gnomic - a general principle - but the aktionsart is - the kind of action - is continuous, customary, habitual and is not onetime and thereby done forever.
  2. This type of continually hearing and believing man who is thereby having eternal life - does not come into judgment.
    1. This is a futuristic present which is why we see it typically being translated as shall not or will not come into judgment.
  3. Has passed from the death into the life is perfect tense
    1. Perfect tense is specifying a current condition based upon a past action.
      1. It does not mean forever and tells us nothing beyond the point in time being discussed
  4. Eternal Life:
    1. It is first a kind and quality of life - the life of God - no beginning & no end
    2. John17:3 explains that knowing God and His Son Jesus Christ is eternal life
      1. This is relational
      2. 1John2:3 explains that we know that we know God if we keep His commandments
      3. We can tie this back to John5:24 - the hearing and believing man obeys God knows God / has eternal life, shall not come into judgment, has passed from death into life and is in life at the time he is hearing and believing and obeying God...
        1. This is very circular and does not apply to anyone who is not a hearing and believing man.
        2. Hearing also trends into obeying
        3. Believing and obeying are inextricably linked and interwoven.
John5:24 on its own make no case for OSAS. The grammar requires the man who has eternal life to be a hearing and believing man. If the man is not a hearing and believing man, then the man does not have eternal life.

John 5:24 in fact goes against the slogan 'faith alone in Christ alone' since according to Jesus believing here is believing [in] the Father who sent Jesus.

BTW, Scripture is full of already / not yet realities. Eternal Life is one of them.
 
Re: Jn 5:24
Staying With Jesus’ Actual Words (Not Grammar Layers)

Jesus didn't say, "has eternal life as long as he keeps hearing & keeps believing & keeps obeying."

He said: HAS eternal life > SHALL NOT come into condemnation > HAS passed from death to life

I posted Jesus words, chosen by the verified translation committees behind the KJV, NKJV, NASB, ESV, NIV, CSB & other major Bibles.

Anyone suggesting "has eternal life," "shall not come into condemnation," & "has passed from death to life" are the wrong words. Their argument belong with translation team across the board
 
I want to take a minute to address what I understand about Acts 10:44-48.

A lot of people seem to try to connect the indwelling spirit as what happened in verse 44. I think a better rendering would be it was not the indwelling but the spirit poured out for witness. In Mark 16:17-20 in those verse we read that Lord working with them, and confirming the word with signs following. also in Acts 1:8 they were to receive power to be witness as they did in Acts 2:4 in careful read we see this only happened to the Apostle on the day of Pentecost which was foretold of Joel see Acts 2:16 But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel;.
It is further noted by what Peter said in Acts 10:47 when he said "which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?”. Here he point back to Pentecost to when this happened to the Apostles. It completes the on all of Joel's prophesy. It hadn't any where between the day of Pentecost to this day. It is not the giving of the indwelling spirit but the fulfillment of Joel's prophecy.

Now in Acts 10:48 we read "And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days."

This is what Peter was sent to preach. It is the same gospel as of Acts 2 the fact that the baptism is in the name of the Lord is your verification that it is the same as Acts 2:38 in which the sin is remitted and the indwelling spirit is deposited. We must let the bible do the talking it will clarify itself if let to do so.
The accounts recorded in Acts 2, 10, 19, and 8 reveal how the Holy Ghost came to dwell inside 100% of the people.

1. Acts 2:4 "...they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance."
2. Acts 10:44 - "While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them..." They heard them speak in tongues. verse 46.
3. Acts 19:6 - Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; (12 men) and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
4. Acts 8:17 - "Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost."


Since Peter revealed in Acts 11:15 that the Gentiles had the same experience as they at Pentecost, the experience referenced as falling on is in fact the same as being filled. This pertains to Acts 19:6-7 as well; the Holy Ghost came on 12 men

When a person has the Holy Ghost dwelling inside their body they are empowered. Power is an inherent quality of the Holy Ghost. So if a person receives the Holy Ghost the instant they believe (scripture does not bear this out) there would be no additional experience necessary to "activate" power.

1. Consider the Samaritan account, it reveals they believed in Jesus and were water baptized yet waited days before actually receiving the Holy Ghost. Acts 8:12-18

2. Paul's question also reveals people don't automatically receive the Holy Ghost upon belief, "Have you received the Holy Ghost SINCE you believed?" Acts 19
 
  • Like
Reactions: Ouch
Sin Atonement Old Covenant & New
From the beginning, God established that innocent blood - not water, not ritual, not human effort - was the only acceptable response to sin. When an Israelite sinned, he brought an innocent substitute (Lev 4:3–4), laid hands on it to identify with it (Lev 1:4 & 4:4), confessed his sin (Lev 5:5 & Num 5:6–7) & the priest applied the blood because "the life of the flesh is in the blood. It's the blood that makes atonement" (Lev 17:11).

And the pattern is unmistakable: a sin offering must be brought & atonement must be made.
Leviticus 4:22-26 (C) and the priest shall make an atonement for him as concerning his sin and it shall be forgiven him.

Lev 4:27-37 (C) and the priest shall make an atonement for him and it shall be forgiven him.

Lev 4:32-35 (C) and the priest shall make an atonement for his sin that he hath committed, and it shall be forgiven him.

Lev 5:1-10 (B) and the priest shall make an atonement for him for his sin which he hath sinned, and it shall be forgiven him.

Lev 6:1-7 And the priest shall make an atonement for him before the LORD: and it shall be forgiven him for any thing of all that he hath done in trespassing therein.

Also see: Lev: 4:20, 5:6, 13, 16, 18, 7:7, 16:6, 11, 15–16, 21–22, 24, 30, Num: 15:25–26, 28, Ex: 29:36 & 30:10, 2 Chron: 29:24,

Yet even these sacrifices never paid the debt. They only covered it. Heb explains that the law provided "a shadow of good things to come" & that the sacrifices were "a reminder of sins every year" because "it is impossible for the blood of bulls & goats to take away sins" (Heb 10:1–4).

Think of it like a credit card: the charge is real, the covering is real, but the payment hasn't been made. The entire sacrificial system postponed judgment until the true payment arrived.

And Scripture states the rule plainly: """Without shedding of blood there is no remission.""" (Heb 9:22)

JESUS IS THE FULFILLMENT
Christ provided the payment the old system could only anticipate. His blood was innocent (1 Pet 1:19), sinless (Heb 4:15), willing (Matt 26:53 & Jn 10:17–18) & divine (Acts 20:28). That means His sacrifice didn't just cover sin temporarily - it paid the debt in full & cleanses continually (Heb 9:12, 10:12–14).

Jesus Himself defined the purpose of His sacrifice: """This is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.""" (Matt 26:28)

What the old sacrifices pictured, His sacrifice accomplished. What they covered, He removed. What they postponed, He settled.

Any doctrine that assigns remission to water or ritual overturns the entire biblical pattern: God requires innocent blood & only the blood of Christ actually pays the debt & takes away sin (Jn 1:29).

WHY WATER‑REMISSION CRUMBLES UNDER SCRIPTURE
From Gen to Rev, God only used innocent blood to cover/remove sin. The old offerings covered sin like a credit charge waiting for payment, but Christ's sinless, perpetually cleansing, divine blood paid for every sin committed before the cross & every sin committed after the cross & this payment is accessed by faith (Rom 5:12).

John seals the argument: """To Him who loved us and washed us from our sins in His own blood.""" (Rev 1:5)

Peter agrees: We were redeemed "not with corruptible things but with the precious blood of Christ (1 Pet 1:18–19).

Paul agrees: "In Him we have redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of sins" (Eph 1:7 & Col 1:14)

Writer of Hebrews agrees: Christ "obtained eternal redemption" "by His own blood" (Heb 9:12).

Jesus said it plainly: """This is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.""" (Matt 26:28)

The entire New Testament speaks with one voice: Forgiveness is blood‑based, not water‑based. The idea that water removes sin isn't just a misreading - it contradicts millennia of God‑breathed teaching & diminishes the tremendous price Jesus endured to satisfy sin's required penalty of death (Rom 6:23 & Heb 2:9).

Every Believer Should Partake in Water Baptism & Communion as Commanded by the Lord Himself.

Jesus commanded water baptism for all disciples: Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them (Matt 28:19)

Jesus also commanded communion for all believers: "Do this in remembrance of Me." (Lk 22:19 & 1 Cor 11:23–26)

Baptism & communion don't save - the blood of Christ does. But every believer is commanded to participate in both as acts of obedience, identification & remembrance.
 
Sin Atonement Old Covenant & New
From the beginning, God established that innocent blood - not water, not ritual, not human effort - was the only acceptable response to sin. When an Israelite sinned, he brought an innocent substitute (Lev 4:3–4), laid hands on it to identify with it (Lev 1:4 & 4:4), confessed his sin (Lev 5:5 & Num 5:6–7) & the priest applied the blood because "the life of the flesh is in the blood. It's the blood that makes atonement" (Lev 17:11).

And the pattern is unmistakable: a sin offering must be brought & atonement must be made.
Leviticus 4:22-26 (C) and the priest shall make an atonement for him as concerning his sin and it shall be forgiven him.

Lev 4:27-37 (C) and the priest shall make an atonement for him and it shall be forgiven him.

Lev 4:32-35 (C) and the priest shall make an atonement for his sin that he hath committed, and it shall be forgiven him.

Lev 5:1-10 (B) and the priest shall make an atonement for him for his sin which he hath sinned, and it shall be forgiven him.

Lev 6:1-7 And the priest shall make an atonement for him before the LORD: and it shall be forgiven him for any thing of all that he hath done in trespassing therein.

Also see: Lev: 4:20, 5:6, 13, 16, 18, 7:7, 16:6, 11, 15–16, 21–22, 24, 30, Num: 15:25–26, 28, Ex: 29:36 & 30:10, 2 Chron: 29:24,

Yet even these sacrifices never paid the debt. They only covered it. Heb explains that the law provided "a shadow of good things to come" & that the sacrifices were "a reminder of sins every year" because "it is impossible for the blood of bulls & goats to take away sins" (Heb 10:1–4).

Think of it like a credit card: the charge is real, the covering is real, but the payment hasn't been made. The entire sacrificial system postponed judgment until the true payment arrived.

And Scripture states the rule plainly: """Without shedding of blood there is no remission.""" (Heb 9:22)

JESUS IS THE FULFILLMENT
Christ provided the payment the old system could only anticipate. His blood was innocent (1 Pet 1:19), sinless (Heb 4:15), willing (Matt 26:53 & Jn 10:17–18) & divine (Acts 20:28). That means His sacrifice didn't just cover sin temporarily - it paid the debt in full & cleanses continually (Heb 9:12, 10:12–14).

Jesus Himself defined the purpose of His sacrifice: """This is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.""" (Matt 26:28)

What the old sacrifices pictured, His sacrifice accomplished. What they covered, He removed. What they postponed, He settled.

Any doctrine that assigns remission to water or ritual overturns the entire biblical pattern: God requires innocent blood & only the blood of Christ actually pays the debt & takes away sin (Jn 1:29).

WHY WATER‑REMISSION CRUMBLES UNDER SCRIPTURE
From Gen to Rev, God only used innocent blood to cover/remove sin. The old offerings covered sin like a credit charge waiting for payment, but Christ's sinless, perpetually cleansing, divine blood paid for every sin committed before the cross & every sin committed after the cross & this payment is accessed by faith (Rom 5:12).

John seals the argument: """To Him who loved us and washed us from our sins in His own blood.""" (Rev 1:5)

Peter agrees: We were redeemed "not with corruptible things but with the precious blood of Christ (1 Pet 1:18–19).

Paul agrees: "In Him we have redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of sins" (Eph 1:7 & Col 1:14)

Writer of Hebrews agrees: Christ "obtained eternal redemption" "by His own blood" (Heb 9:12).

Jesus said it plainly: """This is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.""" (Matt 26:28)

The entire New Testament speaks with one voice: Forgiveness is blood‑based, not water‑based. The idea that water removes sin isn't just a misreading - it contradicts millennia of God‑breathed teaching & diminishes the tremendous price Jesus endured to satisfy sin's required penalty of death (Rom 6:23 & Heb 2:9).

Every Believer Should Partake in Water Baptism & Communion as Commanded by the Lord Himself.

Jesus commanded water baptism for all disciples: Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them (Matt 28:19)

Jesus also commanded communion for all believers: "Do this in remembrance of Me." (Lk 22:19 & 1 Cor 11:23–26)

Baptism & communion don't save - the blood of Christ does. But every believer is commanded to participate in both as acts of obedience, identification & remembrance.

I'm kinda done with you, I was not going to just look at what you said as go on.

What you say IS NOT TRUE AT ALL!!!!

Being baptized in JESUS name IS NOT A RITUAL, just because you say it is does not make it true.

OT they had to OBEY.

NT we have to OBEY also.

According to you no one does today.

If just believing gets you saved than EVERYONE is going to Heaven!!

Muslims believe and follow their moon god, are they going to Heaven?

You are right it is JESUS blood, but you're wrong, JESUS gave us the water to remove our sins.

And it's very clear in HIS word, Acts 2, 8, 10 and 19 everyone who was given that same message.

In an effort to distort HIS word to prove you are right you added Matthew 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

You don't even understand what it says, GO TO ALL NATIONS BAPTIZING THEM!!!!

JESUS gave HIS disciples as COMMANDMENT.

BEFORE they went out, THEY OBEYED JESUS and waited, this happened.

Acts 2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.

Then this happened WHEN THE JEWS ASKED THEM WHAT SHOULD WE DO?

Acts 2:37 Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do?

38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

39 For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.

40 And with many other words did he testify and exhort, saying, Save yourselves from this untoward generation.

41 Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.

HIS word is very clear, ARE YOU A JESUS DISCIPLE???

Who are you working for JESUS or Satan trying to convince people to stay out of the water??

NOTHING LIVES WITHOUT WATER, that is when we are buried with him!!

Romans 6:3 Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?

4 Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.

Satan's plan, keep them out of the water if they get in the water keep JESUS name out of it.

Why are so so set on keeping people out of the water????

JESUS disciple along with every other person in the book of Acts the building of the church was baptized in JESUS name and received the Holy Ghost with EVIDENCE of speaking in tongues.

EVERYCASE, and your trying to PROVE THE BOOK OF ACTS WRONG.

It's also clear your heart has not been pricked, they were humble in Acts 2:37, you so far are far from it.

YOU DO NOT GLADLY RECEIVE HIS WORD!!

JESUS said, John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

You say we don't WHO'S WRONG you or JESUS?

Do you understand if you lead anyone astray, their blood will be on YOUR HANDS?
 
Re: Jn 5:24
Staying With Jesus’ Actual Words (Not Grammar Layers)

Jesus didn't say, "has eternal life as long as he keeps hearing & keeps believing & keeps obeying."

He said: HAS eternal life > SHALL NOT come into condemnation > HAS passed from death to life

I posted Jesus words, chosen by the verified translation committees behind the KJV, NKJV, NASB, ESV, NIV, CSB & other major Bibles.

Anyone suggesting "has eternal life," "shall not come into condemnation," & "has passed from death to life" are the wrong words. Their argument belong with translation team across the board

Actually, those grammar layers are the actual words and analysis of them.

One of the main problems in these communications is ambiguity which leaves us open to reading the same language different ways. And for whatever reason, those "translation committees" do not seem to do the work from the Greek to make the English more specific. But we can do so from the Greek and from digging deeper into explanations from men like Daniel Wallace who's involved with the NET Bible translation.

Here's an example that uses the same wording ὁ πιστεύων (Jn. 3:16 SCR) as John5:24 τὸν λόγον μου ἀκούων, καὶ πιστεύων (Jn. 5:24 SCR):
Here's how they translated this Greek phrase ὁ πιστεύων (ho pisteuōn):​
NET John 3:16 For this is the way God loved the world: He gave his one and only Son, so that everyone who believes in him will not perish but have eternal life.​
The problem with the English is that it's ambiguous and can be interpreted in at least 3 different ways:​
  • Punctiliar - point in time: Interpreted as a singular past event even though translated as "believes" and not "believed".
  • Gnomic: A general maxim without explicitly commenting on duration or frequency. It can thus also speak of the type of person - a believing person.
  • Iterative or Customary: the action is ongoing or habitual
So, we're left to argue over English possibilities.​
But Wallace provided more information in his book Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics p.521-522 (underlining is mine):​
C. Customary (Habitual or General) Present​
1. Definition​
The customary present is used to signal either an action that regularly occurs or an ongoing state.20 The action is usually iterative, or repeated, but not without interruption. This usage is quite common.​
The difference between the customary (proper) and the iterative present is mild. Generally, however, it can be said that the customary present is broader in its idea of the “present” time and describes an event that occurs regularly. The customary present is an iterative present with the temporal ends “kicked out.”​
522​
There are two types of customary present, repeated action and ongoing state. The stative present is more pronounced in its temporal restrictions than the customary present or the gnomic present.​
2. Key to Identification: customarily, habitually, continually
The two types of customary present are lexically determined: One is repeated action (habitual present [customarily, habitually]), while the other is ongoing state (stative present [continually]).​
3. Illustrations​
a. Clear Examples​
νηστεύω δὶς τοῦ σαββάτου​
I [customarily] fast twice a week​
πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται​
everyone who [continually] believes in him should not perish​
This could also be taken as a gnomic present, but if so it is not a proverbial statement, nor is it simply a general maxim. In this Gospel, there seems to be a qualitative distinction between the ongoing act of believing and the simple fact of believing.

So, although the translation is ambiguous, Wallace doesn't see the verb or the statement in John3:16 as being ambiguous. Nor do I.

One of the things the Koine Greek is known for is its clarity and specificity. It just takes a lot of work to dig down and try to find it. This is what Wallace is doing in the above example. I was taught to do the same thing.

So, FWIW and with respect, it does not surprise me when you or anyone tied to a theological system takes a position on an ambiguity. It's perfectly normal to do so in all these systems. But there's another entire level to go in the original language. You came up with a Gnomic Present classification in an earlier discussion and now you're resting in "translation committees" to make your decision from their ambiguity. This is interpreting the interpreters, which is one of the things I was avoiding when I went through Greek training.

One of the English translations I keep on-screen for these types of reasons is the Young's Literal Translation, so I can see what Mr. Young saw:

YLT John 3:16 for God did so love the world, that His Son -- the only begotten -- He gave, that every one who is believing in him may not perish, but may have life age-during.​
YLT John 5:24 'Verily, verily, I say to you -- He who is hearing my word, and is believing Him who sent me, hath life age-during, and to judgment he doth not come, but hath passed out of the death to the life.​
There's not much if any ambiguity left here, just as there is no ambiguity in Daniel Wallace's classification and clarification.​
 
Tongues Then, Now & Why

Tongues: There purpose & why it's not the normative pattern today.

They were public verification, prophesied in advance & given at major New‑Covenant expansion moments.

Deut 14:2 God chooses Israel & for over 1400 yrs the Nation lives under Mosaic law. The book of Acts maps the transition from the old‑covenant Levitical priesthood (retired at Jesus' resurrection) to the priestly order of Melchizedek. A transition from law to grace. The law demanded works to receive blessings, grace freely supplies blessings based on faith in Jesus' finished, sacrificial, sin‑atoning work

In Acts 1:4 Jesus gives a promise & in Acts 1:8 He maps out a global evangelistic mission: beginning at Jerusalem (Temple Mount, Pentecost), then Judea, then Samaria & finally to the uttermost parts of the earth

TONGUES:
Tongues fulfilled two prophetic streams: Joel‑SIGNS > Spirit outpouring. Isaiah‑SIGNS > judgment sign to Israel & Covenant‑transition signs > verifying each new group entering the New Covenant.

Tongues were a SIGN, not a condition. Paul states the purpose plainly: "Tongues are for a sign to unbelievers." (1 Cor 14:22). "A sign to onlookers" - Not a sign to the speaker, NOT a sign of salvation & Not a condition for receiving the Spirit.

TONGUES EVENTS:
Acts 2 — Israel only. Purpose: launch of the New Covenant. Audience: Devout Jews from every nation. Result: Peter preaches, 3,000 saved. Meaning: God has begun the last days (Joel 2)

Acts 10 — Gentiles, Purpose: Prove Gentiles were accepted before water baptism, Audience: Jewish believers who doubted Gentile inclusion, Result: Peter commands water baptism after Spirit baptism, Meaning: God makes no distinction (Acts 11:17–18)

Acts 19 — Disciples of John, Purpose: Transition old‑covenant disciples into the gospel. Audience: 12 men who had never heard of the Spirit. Result: They receive the Spirit after hearing the gospel. Meaning: John's baptism is obsolete.

Acts 8 — Samaritans, (no tongues recorded, but Spirit given) Purpose: Unite Jews & Samaritans under apostolic authority. Audience: Apostles must witness it. Meaning: Samaritan are no longer a rival sect.

NOTICE THE PATTERN:
Jews only > Samaritans > Gentiles > John's disciples. Once all groups are included, ""the SIGN is no longer needed"".

Tongues appear only when a new covenant group is added. Not every at every baptism, not with every conversion.

Tongues were never universal in the book of Acts. Thousands were saved in Acts 2, 3k saved, Acts 4:4, 5k men saved, Acts 8:39, Ethiopian eunuch, Acts 9, Paul saved, Acts 11:21, "a great number believed, Acts 16, Lydia & Phil jailer saved, Acts 17, Thessalonians saved, Acts 18, Corinthians saved, Acts 19:18, many saved. NONE OF THESE MENTIONED INCLUE TONGUES.

This is where the "tongues = salvation" doctrine" fails. Paul asks: Do all speak with tongues? (1 Cor 12:30) Paul says: Gifts differ (1 Cor 12:4–6). The Spirit distributes as He wills (1 Cor 12:11). Not all have the same gifts (1 Cor 12:29–30)

WHY TONGUES THEN
OT Prophesy fulfilment. Tongues in Acts were a covenant‑transitional SIGN & Scripture itself explains what kind of SIGN they were.

Paul quotes Isaiah 28:11 (with stammering lips and another tongue) in 1 Cor 14:21 to show that tongues were a judgment sign to unbelieving Israel. God speaking to them through foreign languages because they rejected His word.

This matches Acts 2, where the gathered crowds included:
“Parthians, Medes, Elamites, dwellers in Mesopotamia, Judea, Cappadocia, Pontus, Asia, Phrygia, Pamphylia, Egypt, parts of Libya about Cyrene, strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes, Cretes and Arabians…” (Acts 2:9–11)

The disciples were speaking foreign human languages, exactly as Isaiah predicted. The people gathered heard them in their own native tongue.

Once the gospel reached Jews, Samaritans, Gentiles & Old‑covenant leftovers, there were no more groups left to validate & no further Isa 28, judgment SIGN was needed. The tongues SIGN had done its job.

WHY TONGUES NOW

Paul teaches that tongues today are optional spiritual gifts of edification

They are NOT a requirement or proof or salvation, NOT tied to receiving the Spirit, NOT tied to water baptism & NOT tied to covenant transitions (those are complete)

Tongues are permissible during a church assembly only when interpreter is present. When tongues & interpretation operate together, the result is equivalent to prophecy.

1 Corinthians 14:1–2 (Tongues Prayer Gift)
Paul describes the personal prayer-tongue as a GIFT exercised between the believer & God alone. It is for personal edification, not public communication. The one praying does not understand what he is saying, his spirit prays while the meaning remains hidden. He speaks mysteries in the Spirit & his understanding is unfruitful.

During an assembly gathering, speaking in tongues requires someone with the GIFT of interpretation. Together these spiritual GIFTS turn a private Spirit‑spoken mystery into an intelligible message that edifies the whole church.

These gifts are available to any believer with the FAITH to access them.

You can find more on spiritual gifts here: Rom 12:3–8, 1 Cor chapters 12,13 & 14, Eph 4:7–16
 
Tongues Then, Now & Why

Tongues: There purpose & why it's not the normative pattern today.

They were public verification, prophesied in advance & given at major New‑Covenant expansion moments.

Deut 14:2 God chooses Israel & for over 1400 yrs the Nation lives under Mosaic law. The book of Acts maps the transition from the old‑covenant Levitical priesthood (retired at Jesus' resurrection) to the priestly order of Melchizedek. A transition from law to grace. The law demanded works to receive blessings, grace freely supplies blessings based on faith in Jesus' finished, sacrificial, sin‑atoning work

In Acts 1:4 Jesus gives a promise & in Acts 1:8 He maps out a global evangelistic mission: beginning at Jerusalem (Temple Mount, Pentecost), then Judea, then Samaria & finally to the uttermost parts of the earth

TONGUES:
Tongues fulfilled two prophetic streams: Joel‑SIGNS > Spirit outpouring. Isaiah‑SIGNS > judgment sign to Israel & Covenant‑transition signs > verifying each new group entering the New Covenant.

Tongues were a SIGN, not a condition. Paul states the purpose plainly: "Tongues are for a sign to unbelievers." (1 Cor 14:22). "A sign to onlookers" - Not a sign to the speaker, NOT a sign of salvation & Not a condition for receiving the Spirit.

TONGUES EVENTS:
Acts 2 — Israel only. Purpose: launch of the New Covenant. Audience: Devout Jews from every nation. Result: Peter preaches, 3,000 saved. Meaning: God has begun the last days (Joel 2)

Acts 10 — Gentiles, Purpose: Prove Gentiles were accepted before water baptism, Audience: Jewish believers who doubted Gentile inclusion, Result: Peter commands water baptism after Spirit baptism, Meaning: God makes no distinction (Acts 11:17–18)

Acts 19 — Disciples of John, Purpose: Transition old‑covenant disciples into the gospel. Audience: 12 men who had never heard of the Spirit. Result: They receive the Spirit after hearing the gospel. Meaning: John's baptism is obsolete.

Acts 8 — Samaritans, (no tongues recorded, but Spirit given) Purpose: Unite Jews & Samaritans under apostolic authority. Audience: Apostles must witness it. Meaning: Samaritan are no longer a rival sect.

NOTICE THE PATTERN:
Jews only > Samaritans > Gentiles > John's disciples. Once all groups are included, ""the SIGN is no longer needed"".

Tongues appear only when a new covenant group is added. Not every at every baptism, not with every conversion.

Tongues were never universal in the book of Acts. Thousands were saved in Acts 2, 3k saved, Acts 4:4, 5k men saved, Acts 8:39, Ethiopian eunuch, Acts 9, Paul saved, Acts 11:21, "a great number believed, Acts 16, Lydia & Phil jailer saved, Acts 17, Thessalonians saved, Acts 18, Corinthians saved, Acts 19:18, many saved. NONE OF THESE MENTIONED INCLUE TONGUES.

This is where the "tongues = salvation" doctrine" fails. Paul asks: Do all speak with tongues? (1 Cor 12:30) Paul says: Gifts differ (1 Cor 12:4–6). The Spirit distributes as He wills (1 Cor 12:11). Not all have the same gifts (1 Cor 12:29–30)

WHY TONGUES THEN
OT Prophesy fulfilment. Tongues in Acts were a covenant‑transitional SIGN & Scripture itself explains what kind of SIGN they were.

Paul quotes Isaiah 28:11 (with stammering lips and another tongue) in 1 Cor 14:21 to show that tongues were a judgment sign to unbelieving Israel. God speaking to them through foreign languages because they rejected His word.

This matches Acts 2, where the gathered crowds included:
“Parthians, Medes, Elamites, dwellers in Mesopotamia, Judea, Cappadocia, Pontus, Asia, Phrygia, Pamphylia, Egypt, parts of Libya about Cyrene, strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes, Cretes and Arabians…” (Acts 2:9–11)

The disciples were speaking foreign human languages, exactly as Isaiah predicted. The people gathered heard them in their own native tongue.

Once the gospel reached Jews, Samaritans, Gentiles & Old‑covenant leftovers, there were no more groups left to validate & no further Isa 28, judgment SIGN was needed. The tongues SIGN had done its job.

WHY TONGUES NOW

Paul teaches that tongues today are optional spiritual gifts of edification

They are NOT a requirement or proof or salvation, NOT tied to receiving the Spirit, NOT tied to water baptism & NOT tied to covenant transitions (those are complete)

Tongues are permissible during a church assembly only when interpreter is present. When tongues & interpretation operate together, the result is equivalent to prophecy.

1 Corinthians 14:1–2 (Tongues Prayer Gift)
Paul describes the personal prayer-tongue as a GIFT exercised between the believer & God alone. It is for personal edification, not public communication. The one praying does not understand what he is saying, his spirit prays while the meaning remains hidden. He speaks mysteries in the Spirit & his understanding is unfruitful.

During an assembly gathering, speaking in tongues requires someone with the GIFT of interpretation. Together these spiritual GIFTS turn a private Spirit‑spoken mystery into an intelligible message that edifies the whole church.

These gifts are available to any believer with the FAITH to access them.

You can find more on spiritual gifts here: Rom 12:3–8, 1 Cor chapters 12,13 & 14, Eph 4:7–16

Story time, receiving the Holy Ghost just like in Acts 2,8,10 and 19 are a part of being reborn.

Why do I say that?

Along with JESUS saying we have to be born of WATER and of SPIRIT to ENTER JESUS also said this, Mark 16:17
King James Version
17 And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;

SO YOU WILL IN FACT SPEAK WITH NEW TONGUES.

I don't care how many times you call JESUS a LIAR, HE'S NOT.

It happened, JESUS filled them with the Holy Ghost and they spoke in tongues!!

Acts 8 is the only one which it does not say it cleary, BUT how did they know they didn't get it?

They didn't hear anything come out of their mouth PROVING what happens when you do get it.

How did they know they did get it?

Verse 17 they laid hands on them and they received the Holy Ghost, so how did they know???

Something must have been different!!

IN EVERY CASE OF PEOPLE BEING REBORN BOTH WATER AND SPIRIT WAS PRESENT!!! EVERY TIME.

Just can't twist scripture to fit your unbiblical stories.

Don't care how many times you claim or make us stories to try to say HIS word is wrong YOUR WRONG.
 
The accounts recorded in Acts 2, 10, 19, and 8 reveal how the Holy Ghost came to dwell inside 100% of the people.

1. Acts 2:4 "...they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance."
2. Acts 10:44 - "While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them..." They heard them speak in tongues. verse 46.
3. Acts 19:6 - Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; (12 men) and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
4. Acts 8:17 - "Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost."


Since Peter revealed in Acts 11:15 that the Gentiles had the same experience as they at Pentecost, the experience referenced as falling on is in fact the same as being filled. This pertains to Acts 19:6-7 as well; the Holy Ghost came on 12 men

When a person has the Holy Ghost dwelling inside their body they are empowered. Power is an inherent quality of the Holy Ghost. So if a person receives the Holy Ghost the instant they believe (scripture does not bear this out) there would be no additional experience necessary to "activate" power.

1. Consider the Samaritan account, it reveals they believed in Jesus and were water baptized yet waited days before actually receiving the Holy Ghost. Acts 8:12-18

2. Paul's question also reveals people don't automatically receive the Holy Ghost upon belief, "Have you received the Holy Ghost SINCE you believed?" Acts 19
Is this "Holy Ghost dwelling inside their body" something perceptible or simply taken for granted?

Does someone's claim of having the indwelling of the Holy Spirit hold any weight in spiritual debates?

I am not implying that anyone here doing this but isn't such claims simply metaphysical?

Is there any way someone can prove such a claim?
 
Story time, receiving the Holy Ghost just like in Acts 2,8,10 and 19 are a part of being reborn.

Why do I say that?

Along with JESUS saying we have to be born of WATER and of SPIRIT to ENTER JESUS also said this, Mark 16:17
King James Version
17 And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;

SO YOU WILL IN FACT SPEAK WITH NEW TONGUES.

I don't care how many times you call JESUS a LIAR, HE'S NOT.

It happened, JESUS filled them with the Holy Ghost and they spoke in tongues!!

Acts 8 is the only one which it does not say it cleary, BUT how did they know they didn't get it?

They didn't hear anything come out of their mouth PROVING what happens when you do get it.

How did they know they did get it?

Verse 17 they laid hands on them and they received the Holy Ghost, so how did they know???

Something must have been different!!

IN EVERY CASE OF PEOPLE BEING REBORN BOTH WATER AND SPIRIT WAS PRESENT!!! EVERY TIME.

Just can't twist scripture to fit your unbiblical stories.

Don't care how many times you claim or make us stories to try to say HIS word is wrong YOUR WRONG.

Mk 16:17 says these signs shall follow them that believe—it does not say every believer will do all of them. If your reading is right, then every true believer must cast out devils, speak with new tongues, take up serpents, drink poison unharmed & heal the sick. You can't actually believe that.

Acts is descriptive, not a universal formula. Thousands are saved in Acts with no tongues mentioned (Acts 2, 4:4, 8:39, 11:21, 16, 17, 18, 19:18). If tongues are required for rebirth, Luke forgot to record the "proof" for MOST conversions.

Paul settles this in 1 Cor 12: "Do all speak with tongues?" The implied answer is no. Gifts differ & the Spirit distributes as He wills (12:4–11, 29–30). If tongues = salvation, then Most of those converted on Acts are actually unsaved. Yet, Luke records them as SAVED!

Paul writes 13 books & he never says, never implies, never hints & never suggests that speaking in tongues is a requirement for salvation.

But he did say:

Acts 16:31, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and you will be saved.

Romans 1:16, The gospel is the power of God unto salvation to everyone who believes.

Eph 2:8–9 — Saved by grace through faith, not works.

Eph 1:
13 And you also were included in Christ when you heard the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation. When you believed, you were marked in him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit,

14 who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God’s possession—to the praise of his glory.

"""Wen you HEARD the message of truth""", """The gospel of your salvation""". """When you believed""", """you were marked in him with a seal""" a deposit guaranteeing your inheritance & redemption > """the promised Holy Spirit"""! Amen
 
The accounts recorded in Acts 2, 10, 19, and 8 reveal how the Holy Ghost came to dwell inside 100% of the people.

1. Acts 2:4 "...they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance."
2. Acts 10:44 - "While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them..." They heard them speak in tongues. verse 46.
3. Acts 19:6 - Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; (12 men) and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
4. Acts 8:17 - "Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost."


Since Peter revealed in Acts 11:15 that the Gentiles had the same experience as they at Pentecost, the experience referenced as falling on is in fact the same as being filled. This pertains to Acts 19:6-7 as well; the Holy Ghost came on 12 men

When a person has the Holy Ghost dwelling inside their body they are empowered. Power is an inherent quality of the Holy Ghost. So if a person receives the Holy Ghost the instant they believe (scripture does not bear this out) there would be no additional experience necessary to "activate" power.

1. Consider the Samaritan account, it reveals they believed in Jesus and were water baptized yet waited days before actually receiving the Holy Ghost. Acts 8:12-18

2. Paul's question also reveals people don't automatically receive the Holy Ghost upon belief, "Have you received the Holy Ghost SINCE you believed?" Acts 19
I want you to answer me this one question.
Here is the scriptures do you see the spirit coming upon anyone other than the Apostles and Cornelius household as recorded in Acts 2 and chapter 10? Where do you read it happened that way again other than those 2 places.?I am talking about in the same manner as it did there.

After you answer this with the scriptures to support it we will discuss this more.
 
Let's put on our thinking cap.

Some seem to think that Acts 2:4 Acts 10:44 Acts 19:6 and Acts 8:17 is the same as the indwelling of Acts 2:38 and of Acts 19:5. They are not the same only the indwelling was promised to all every man alike see Acts 2:38,39. The spirit upon for witness see Act 1:8 and Mark 16:17-20 was not the same thing. It was the work of the spirit for a specific reason not the comforter that was promised to all. Please pay attention to the difference the scriptures make in relation to this.

Is this really hard to distinguish between the two operations? The power of witness was never promised to all it is the indwelling that is promised to all. The power of witness was for confirming Gods word that was its sole purpose. The word of God has been confirmed and no new revelations are being made. There were only two ways that the power of witness was given. First by the outpouring on all nations as in Acts 2 and 10 then only from that point on by the Apostles hands. Please take note of what the scriptures reveal.
 
The accounts recorded in Acts 2, 10, 19, and 8 reveal how the Holy Ghost came to dwell inside 100% of the people.

1. Acts 2:4 "...they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance."
2. Acts 10:44 - "While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them..." They heard them speak in tongues. verse 46.
3. Acts 19:6 - Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; (12 men) and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
4. Acts 8:17 - "Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost."


Since Peter revealed in Acts 11:15 that the Gentiles had the same experience as they at Pentecost, the experience referenced as falling on is in fact the same as being filled. This pertains to Acts 19:6-7 as well; the Holy Ghost came on 12 men

When a person has the Holy Ghost dwelling inside their body they are empowered. Power is an inherent quality of the Holy Ghost. So if a person receives the Holy Ghost the instant they believe (scripture does not bear this out) there would be no additional experience necessary to "activate" power.

1. Consider the Samaritan account, it reveals they believed in Jesus and were water baptized yet waited days before actually receiving the Holy Ghost. Acts 8:12-18

2. Paul's question also reveals people don't automatically receive the Holy Ghost upon belief, "Have you received the Holy Ghost SINCE you believed?" Acts 19
My response to your #1
Yes they believed and got baptized at which point they received remission of sin and the indwelling spirit as according to Acts 2:38
They did not receive the power of witness because it is not promised to all it is not what the indwelling is for. The indwelling is to strengthen our walk in the light a comforter and guidance that produces the fruit in us.

Philip needs to continue his mission in planting new churches so he calls on the Apostles to lay hands on these to impart the power of witness so they can grow the newly planted church while Philip and the apostles continue their work of planting churches.

The laying on of hands is not them giving them the indwelling but the power to witness. Jesus gave them the indwelling when they were baptized in his name. There is a difference we need to study what the scriptures say is the difference.

In response to your #2

Paul assume that if you believe you are baptized in Christ name for they go hand in hand believe and be baptized. Here he assumed they had received the indwelling spirit because they had been baptized but learnt they were baptized in the wrong baptism and he corrected it so that they could receive the promised indwelling spirit as in Acts 2:38,30. Like Philip in Acts 8 Paul had to continue his mission aboard so he laid hands on them to transfer the power of witness so these men can grow the church in his absence.