I appreciate the engagement, but each of your "The claim:" lines misstate what I actually wrote. Let me clarify the categories so the discussion stays anchored in the text rather than in assumptions.
Baptism is merely a Jewish mikveh for ceremonial purification:
What I actually argued is that baptism originated in Jewish purification categories — which is historically & textually undeniable (Ex 30; Lev 14–16; John 3:25). That does not mean baptism is "merely" anything. It means the framework the apostles used was the one they inherited. Aphesis names the result, not the mechanism. Jesus' blood causes remission (Matt 26:28; Heb 9:22). Baptism signifies repentance & purification (Mark 1:4 & Acts 19:4). Same word, different cause
The calling in Acts 22:16 is the only operative action"
That's not what I said. I said the grammar makes the means explicit: "Be baptized" - the purification act, "Wash away your sins" - the imagery, "Calling on His name" - the effective means (participle of means). Paul's sins were washed away the same way Peter preached in Acts 10:43 - by believing in Christ, not by water.
Nothing external removes sin: Correct - because Hebrews explicitly says so (Heb 9:9–10). The "bodies washed with pure water" in Heb 10:22 is Levitical consecration imagery (Ex 29:4 & Lev 8:6), not a sacramental command. Hebrews’ entire argument is that external washings cannot cleanse the conscience. Only Christ’s blood does that.
Water represents only judgment: I never said "only." I said Peter identifies the water of the flood as judgment & the ark as salvation - which is exactly what the text says. Saved through water" (dia) means "through the ordeal," not "by means of water." Peter immediately clarifies that baptism saves not by the removal of dirt from the flesh, but by the appeal to God (1 Pet 3:21). The saving agent is the appeal, not the water.
The Gentile timeline proves baptism was a Jewish‑only ritual." This is the one point that needs correction, because it is not what I wrote. My point was: Baptism began in Jewish purification categories & was practiced in that framework until Gentiles were brought in.
I explicitly affirmed: Gentiles were baptized (Acts 10:47–48), Baptism is for "all nations" (Matt 28:19), And Acts 10 is decisive because the Gentiles received the Spirit before water - the same pattern as Acts 2"1-4 God Himself separates Spirit‑giving from water baptism in both the Jewish & Gentile inaugurations. The timeline establishes origin & context, not exclusivity.
I really have no idea why you would claim the Gentiles were reborn before they were baptized in JESUS name to remove their sins.
Your claiming that a person can be reborn without getting rid of any sins at all.
It's clear sin will not enter heaven!!
It's also clear JESUS said we need BOTH TO ENTER in John 3:5.
BUT if you claim they were, at what point was the Samaritans reborn in Acts 8? They were baptized then received the Holy Ghost days maybe weeks later?
How about in Acts 19? at what point were they reborn? They were baptized in JESUS name and received the Holy Ghost seconds later.