A couple of days ago, I wrote two posts (27,679 & 27,725) that demolished the idea that the Gr. term "kosmos" (most often rendered as "world") is always used in the distributive since. The facts of the bible, however, clearly refute this assumption that so many professing Christians read into passages, such as Jn 3:16. No FWer has even acknowledged the above two posts, let along refute their arguments. Long live FW Crickets! So...here's another passage that is huge fly in the FW understanding of how "world" is used.
Rom 11:11-15
11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their [Israel's] transgression,
salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12
But if their [Israel's] transgression means riches for the world, and their [Israel's] loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their fullness bring!
13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I make much of my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them. 15
For if their [Israel's] rejection is the reconciliation of the world, what will their acceptance be but life from the dead?
NIV
The above passage clearly and irrefutably refutes the distributive sense understanding of the the term "world". I have color coded portions of the text to accentuate the
contrasts that Paul made in this passage between national Israel and the Gentile world. Logically speaking, Israel cannot be part of the world as this would have Paul contradicting himself multiple times.
1. Gentiles = the world
2. Israel's transgression = riches for the [Gentile] world
3. Israel's loss = riches for the Gentile world
4. Israel's rejection = reconciliation of the [Gentile] world
Since you FWers are such pathetic apologists for FWT, you need to beg, borrow or steal the services of genuine bible scholars. Maybe they can provide you with some real solutions to these three posts.
