Got Questions page on the issue of baptism... <=click (Does 1 Peter 3:21 teach that baptism is necessary for salvation?)
Saved by faith alone?
- Thread starter Lamar
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“TRUTH”. The Bible is so plain about this. It’s not hard to understand.
Oh, I guess you get to the Got Questions website via a different browser so let me clarify. "ASK God! Not Got Questions"
If you do not believe in teachers, why are YOU here? Eh, never mind. The self-contradictory are illogical.
gen 15: 6 And he believed in the Lord, and He accounted it to him for righteousness.
rom 4:
4 What then shall we say that Abraham our father has found according to the flesh? 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was [b]accounted to him for righteousness.” 4 Now to him who works, the wages are not counted [c]as grace but as debt.
5 But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness,
20 He did not waver at the promise of God through unbelief, but was strengthened in faith, giving glory to God, 21 and being fully convinced that what He had promised He was also able to perform. 22 And therefore “it was accounted to him for righteousness.”
23 Now it was not written for his sake alone that it was imputed to him, 24 but also for us. It shall be imputed to us who believe in Him who raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead, 25 who was delivered up because of our offenses, and was raised because of our justification.
I am fully convinced. are you?
Still, faith alone doesn't save nor is God's grace applied automatically. It still requires us doing our part which involves obedience; obedience in this case snd in this era of NT salvation requires more than just faith. Belief, faith, confession of belief, repentance, and immersion into Christ, baptism, for the remission of sins.
You would be correct. Because Corinthians 2 tells us,the natural mind cant understand the things of God. That's either faith or salvation,the Gospel.
The only way we can understand is when/if God's Holy Spirit enters us and lifts that natural minded hardness from our mind so that we can then understand. Which means we then have that faith due to God first choosing us.
Remember, God hardens whom he will. We are all that first. And remain so unless he changes it,us.
My point is people should not be directed to the God Questions website to assess whether baptism is necessary for salvation when scripture reveals and confirms the answer:
"These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so." Acts 17:11
did you read what the word of God said
He believed God and it was accounted to him as righteousness.
you want to do the work of water baptism and think God will merit you salvation. feel free.
I will pray for you to repent and come to Jesus based on his work and his work alone
so Abraham receiving the righteousness of God (Justification is the legal term) does not mean he was saved?
when you do not want to see it. you never will. I guess when your trying to get saved by your own righteousness. this makes sense.
Good luck with that
I understand John's baptism and that John was the Forerunner of Christ. In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis. *The only logical conclusion when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 13:38-39; 15:7-9; 16:31; 20:21; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony*
You still have not answered my two questions:
1. Was this baptism of repentance for the remission of sins (Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3) "in order to obtain" remission of sins or was it "in regard to/on the basis of" remission of sins received upon repentance? Be careful. This was before Jesus died on the cross.
2. Did John baptize with water FOR "in order to obtain" repentance.. or FOR "in regard to/on the basis of" repentance? (Matthew 3:11) Being water baptized in order to obtain repentance makes no sense whatsoever. Repentance "precedes" water baptism.
I'm not arguing with the Lord. I'm simply exposing your eisegesis. In Luke 24:47, we read - and that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in His name to all nations, beginning at Jerusalem. *What happened to baptism? In Acts 5:31, we also read - He is the one whom God exalted to His right hand as a Prince and a Savior, to grant repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
This sounds like a desperate attempt to "get around" the truth that the thief on the cross was saved through faith "apart from water baptism" just prior to his death. You still have not dealt with baptism of repentance for the remission of sins in (Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3)
CONTINUED..
Jesus clarifies the first clause with the second...but he who does not believe will be condemned. If he who believes will be saved (John 3:15,16,18,36; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) then he who believes and is baptized will be saved as well, although it's the lack of belief that causes condemnation and not the lack of baptism. John 3:18 -He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
Once again, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical.
The word of faith is in our mouth and in our heart TOGETHER (Romans 10:8) and confession is a confirmation of faith (which is why we will be saved if we confess) and is not a work for salvation after one believes unto righteousness. Not two separate steps to salvation but chronologically together. (Romans 10:9,10)
Well let's see, in Matthew 10:32-33, before Jesus died on the cross, we read - Therefore whoever confesses Me before men, him I will also confess before My Father who is in heaven. 33 But whoever denies Me before men, him I will also deny before My Father who is in heaven. Similar concept. The broader context of this passage relates to the fact that the Pharisees had continuously denied Jesus while the disciples spoke about Him everywhere they went. We might paraphrase His teaching this way: "Whoever confesses me before men (such as you disciples), I will confess him before my Father in heaven. But whoever denies me before men (like these Pharisees do on every occasion they get), I will deny him before my Father in heaven. Again, confession is a confirmation of faith. Those who confess Jesus are those who recognize Him as being the true Messiah and trust in Him as the ALL-sufficient means of their salvation. (John 3:15,16,18; Acts 10:43; 16:31; Romans 3:24-26; 4:5-6; Ephesians 2:8,9 etc..). Those who deny Jesus demonstrate a lack of faith and place themselves beyond any possibility of salvation, since salvation is found only in Him. (John 10:9; 14:6)
That's a lot of dancing around the fact that the thief on the cross was saved through faith (before Jesus died on the cross) just like believers (after Jesus died on the cross) are also saved through faith. (Genesis 15:6; Luke 7:50; 8:12; John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43-47; 11:17-18; 13:38-39; 16:31; 26:18; Romans 1:16; 3:22-28; 4:2-6; 5:1; 10:4; 1 Corinthians 1:21; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8,9; Philippians 3:9; 2 Timothy 3:15; 1 John 5:13 etc..).
Keep reading - Peter continues in the same sentence to explain exactly what he means by it. He said that baptism now saves you-not the removal of dirt from the flesh (that is, not as an outward, physical act which washes dirt from the body--that is not what saves you), "but an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (that is, as an inward, spiritual transaction between God and the individual, a transaction that is symbolized by the outward ceremony of water baptism).
Just as the eight people in the ark were "saved THROUGH water" as they were IN THE ARK. They were not literally saved "by" the water. Hebrews 11:7 is clear on this point (..built an ARK for the SAVING of his household). *The context reveals that ONLY the righteous (Noah and his family) were DRY and therefore SAFE. In contrast, only the wicked in Noah's day came in contact with the water and they all perished.
*So, by Peter saying, "not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience - through the resurrection of Jesus Christ," Peter guards against saving power to the physical ceremony in H20.