John6:44 "all" is not in the verse. The inverse "no man" - masculine singular adjective - is in the verse.
John12:32 masculine plural noun - most literally "all [men]".
That's our definition apart from the desire of some - like yourself? - to redefine.
Hah...so God doesn't give "all" men to his Son! Good to see you agree on that.
The "most literally 'all' [men]" in Jn 12 is limited to both broad types of people in the world: Jews and Gentiles. The passage needs to be understood in its context. Both Jews and Gentiles (Greeks) in the chapter were seeking Christ, but not every single Jew and every single Greek w/o exception sought Him! Therefore, the context of the chapter itself qualifies the extent of "all men".
Moreover, God's grace that effectually draws many to Christ is given only to the humble, so my interpretation of John 12 comports nicely with context of the whole bible.
What I said immediately above also applies with equal force to God's gracious gift of the Fear of the Lord which was promised in the NC only to God's covenant people. For your info, God never made a redemptive covenant with the whole world in the distributive sense. Yet, the Fear of the Lord is an essential, vitally important component of God's saving grace.
Also, all the above harmonizes quite well with the fact that Christ laid down His life only for his FRIENDS/Sheep/Covenant People (Jn 15:13-14; Jn 10:11; Isa 53:4ff., respectively ), which hardly describes the God-hating, rebellious, hostile, proud world.
Finally, all the above neatly explains why Jesus explicitly omitted the "world", which conspires, plots and rages in anger against the Lord and His anointed (Ps 2:1ff. from His High Priestly Prayer in Jn 17.
BTW, if you need to have Jn 15:13-14 reconciled to Rom 5:6, give me a shout. I'll be glad to oblige you; for unlike you Libertinists, I don't ignore apparent contradictions.