John 9:3 literally says that the man was born blind so that the works of God may be made manifest in him. How then do you say that the miracle wasn't the work that was manifest in him and the purpose of it wasn't so that the work of God be made manifest in him? And if it is so, then this is indeed another reason that Jesus performed miracles.right ... I pointed that out to Cameron143 here yesterday ... Jesus telling John's disciples about the healing of the blind (as well as other healing taking place) was information John's disciples would take back to John to confirm that Jesus was, in fact, "He that should come". The fact that Jesus mentioned the healing of the blind first is somewhat significant ... don't want to start another argument about that ... just something I noted ...
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