Only the Remnant will be saved from Israel…..
Let's just ignore the fact that the bible calls the former city of Jerusalem, Sodom and Egypt
Yeah, it's pretty clear in scripture:
"Esaias also crieth concerning Israel, Though the number of the children of Israel be as the sand of the sea, a remnant shall be saved..."
This is obviously dealing with natural Israel, Israelites of the flesh.
When it is written:
"All of Israel will be saved"
That is obviously dealing with spiritual Israel, those who are secured in Christ. This includes Jews and Gentiles who no longer see eternal value in their natural bodies or fleshly lineage.
Read 7 verses before and after to get the context, we can't pick out a verse and misapply it.
Not saying you are, but in 70+ years of relationship with Him, this does not ring true.
best wishes
Right, but those people over there now are not the gathering. Christ will bring his people with him at the resurrection, and any still alive on earth who believe in him will be gathered together with them above the earth while the bowls of wrath are poured out on earth and its inhabitants.
It can still be about israelBut this thread is about Israel. Or did you not notice that???
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The land has been called Palestine for centuries, and consequently those who live in that land are called Palestinians
"The term "Palestine" first appeared in the 5th century BCE when the ancient Greek historian Herodotus referred to a "district of Syria, called Palaistinê" in his work, The Histories. This marked the earliest known use of the name to describe the region between Phoenicia and Egypt. "
Are not gathering? What's your interpretation of gathering?
Which was to mock the jews.
Are you serious? This makes you sound like you are utterly ignorant of what the NT teaches, ie, that Christ came to be rejected and die for our sins so that the world could live
"The word "Palestine" comes from the Latin "Palaestina," which is derived from the Ancient Greek "Παλαιστῑ́νη" (Palaistī́nē), used by the historian Herodotus in the 5th century BCE. This Greek term likely originated from earlier names associated with the Philistines, an ancient people who inhabited the region."
In Hebrew, the root of the word "Palestine" comes from Peleshet (פלשתי), which refers to the Philistines, described as "foreign invaders" or "immigrants" from the Aegean isles who settled in the coastal region of Canaan. The name was adopted by the Romans as Palaestina, derived from the Greek Palaistinê, to refer to the land of Judea and the surrounding region after the Bar Kokhba revolt in 135 CE, as a punishment and way to erase the Jewish connection to the land.
The Hebrew Root
Peleshet (פלשתי): The biblical Hebrew word for the Philistines and their land.
Etymology: The word is derived from the Hebrew root פ.ל.ש (palash), meaning "to dig into" or "roll around in dirt," and is used to describe the Philistines as "invaders" or "foreigners".
From Hebrew to Greek to Roman
1. Biblical Usage:
The term Peleshet (Philistia) in the Hebrew Bible referred to the territory of the Philistines on the Mediterranean coast, an area known for their conflict with the Israelites.
2. Greek Influence:
The Greek historian Herodotus first used "Palaistinê" to describe a broader region, a "district of Syria," in the 5th century BCE.
3. Roman Adoption:
In 135 CE, after quelling the Jewish revolts, the Roman Empire renamed the province of Judea to "Syria-Palaestina," using the Greek name for the land as a punitive measure to sever its association with the Judeans.
Exactly..... so would you call God foolish in his reason or wise. By this the Gentiles are now grafted in. But you would of never seen this unless it had come to pass. My point being all prophecy has to be fulfilled in the natural as well as the spiritual.
Or the title of KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS is null and void. Spiritual as well as natural both.
First the natural, then the spiritual. All prophecies pertaining to natural Israel have been fulfilled.
Howbeit that not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual. 1 Corinthians 15:46
You’re taking this out of context. This passage doesn’t pertain to just the Jews, it’s talking about the resurrection of the righteous/ saved. It’s talking about how we will be changed— the physical/ natural man comes first (flesh and blood) then the spiritual man.
Remember, there is not Jew or Gentile, we are all ONE in Christ Jesus.
It pertains to everything in scripture, cover to cover. First the type (natural), then the antitype (spiritual).
Like I said, the natural man (flesh and blood comes first then the spiritual man— This is what that verse means.
Idk what you mean by [It pertains to everything in scripture, cover to cover]?