His People He foreknew !

[brightfame52]

Which in the context is specifically Israel.

Romans 11:2
“God has not rejected His people whom He foreknew (προέγνω).”

Given the meaning of, "foreknew", in verse Romans 11:2.

We cannot alter the meaning of, "foreknew", in any other verse.

But foreknew isnt exclusive to jews, thats the picture you seem to be drawing. Gods foreknowing people isn't racially centered.

 

[Inquisitor]

But foreknew isnt exclusive to jews, thats the picture you seem to be drawing. Gods foreknowing people isn't racially centered.

God did not have a covenant with the Gentiles.

God formerly knew the covenant people of Israel.

Romans 11:1-2
I say then, God has not rejected His people, has He? May it never be! For I too am an Israelite,
a descendant of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin. God has not rejected His people whom He foreknew.

Paul is not discussing the Gentiles in Romans 11:1-2.

Paul is using, "foreknew", strictly to describe the former covenant people of Israel.

You cannot deny the context.

 

[brightfame52]

@Inquisitor

God did not have a covenant with the Gentiles.

Thats not what I said, nor is it the point. The point is, Gods foreknowing a people or person isn't connected to ethnicity even though Rom 11:2 is in the context of Paul discussing jews. Ethnic jews aren't the only people God foreknew, He foreknew all who will be conformed to the image of Christ Rom 8:28-30 are telling us that's just for ethnic jews ? God forbid


28 And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose.

29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.

30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

Did God only Justify jews ?

Its because of bigoted thinking like yours and the jews, why Jesus and other writers always used the word world, because it was thought God only had a salvific interest in jews.

 

[Inquisitor]

@Inquisitor



Thats not what I said, nor is it the point. The point is, Gods foreknowing a people or person isn't connected to ethnicity even though Rom 11:2 is in the context of Paul discussing jews. Ethnic jews aren't the only people God foreknew, He foreknew all who will be conformed to the image of Christ Rom 8:28-30 are telling us that's just for ethnic jews ? God forbid


28 And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose.

29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.

30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

Did God only Justify jews ?

Its because of bigoted thinking like yours and the jews, why Jesus and other writers always used the word world, because it was thought God only had a salvific interest in jews.

You openly admit that Romans 11:2 concerns the Jews only but then you attempt to say that Romans 8:29.
Which uses the same word, "foreknew", as in Romans 11:2, saying that Paul is talking about the Gentiles.

Your ignoring the context and you have distorted the text.

The Gentiles were never foreknown by God, the Gentiles were not in covenant with God.

Paul is telling you why he has been discussing the plight of Israel.

Romans 9:1-4
I am telling the truth in Christ, I am not lying, my conscience testifies with me in the Holy Spirit,
that I have great sorrow and unceasing grief in my heart. For I could wish that I myself were accursed,
separated from Christ for the sake of my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh, who are Israelites.

I am stunned that you think Paul is not discussing Israel from chapter 2 to chapter 11?

 

[brightfame52]

You openly admit that Romans 11:2 concerns the Jews only but then you attempt to say that Romans 8:29.
Which uses the same word, "foreknew", as in Romans 11:2, saying that Paul is talking about the Gentiles.

Your ignoring the context and you have distorted the text.

The Gentiles were never foreknown by God, the Gentiles were not in covenant with God.

Paul is telling you why he has been discussing the plight of Israel.

Romans 9:1-4
I am telling the truth in Christ, I am not lying, my conscience testifies with me in the Holy Spirit,
that I have great sorrow and unceasing grief in my heart. For I could wish that I myself were accursed,
separated from Christ for the sake of my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh, who are Israelites.

I am stunned that you think Paul is not discussing Israel from chapter 2 to chapter 11?

I have said what I said, unfortunately you remain deceived

 

[brightfame52]

(2) Another word is foreknowledge.19 This word does not refer to a mere foreknowledge whereby God has prior knowledge of all things, including the end of men. “Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world” (Act 15:18). It rather refers to a foreknowledge characterized by love and delight. In this manner, Christ is referred to as “the Elect of God,” stating that He “was foreordained before the foundation of the world” (1Pe 1:20). In like manner, “the LORD knoweth the way of the righteous” (Psa 1:6), and “the Lord knoweth them that are his” (2Ti 2:19). Believers are therefore called “elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father” (1Pe 1:2). It signifies election itself. “God hath not cast away his people which he foreknew” (Rom 11:2); “For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate” (Rom 8:29). This foreknowledge is contrasted with not being known, that is, being rejected. “I never knew you” (Mat 7:23); “I know you not” (Mat 25:12). By Wilhelmus à Brakel