John 3:16 For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
It's the same gospel Paul shared in 1 Corinthians 15. And telling someone that God sent His Son because He loved the world isn't a lie.Actually it is the Gospel stated by you which is the lie, because it leaves out the most important part.
Though some will say all hear even though that contradicts what Jesus said.Well...the FWs will worry because while they talk a good game about Christ dying for all, at the same time they know He is only the potential Savior of all since they limit his atonement qualitatively.
I'll see your OT Scripture and raise you MT 5:44&48. Are you Jewish?
It is common knowledge that RM 9:13 can express approval-disapproval rather than "Jacob I saved, but Esau I damned".
(However, I may look at those other references later just for fun :^)
Rom 3:11 no one understands;Actually, a lot of what free willers say contradict things Jesus said...
Rom 3:11 no one understands;
no one seeks for God.
And I'll see your Mat 5 texts and raise you Jn 10:17; 14:21; 15:10; 16:27.
Re Esau, God did not bring him into a covenant relationship with Himself, as he did with Jacob. Neither did God bring Ishmael into a covenant relationship with himself either. That's the whole point to the opening verses in Rom 9. There are two kinds of Jews: Children according to the flesh, and children according to the promise. Ishmael and Esau were of the former kind. Neither were true children of Abraham.
And I'll see your Mat 5 texts and raise you Jn 10:17; 14:21; 15:10; 16:27.
Re Esau, God did not bring him into a covenant relationship with Himself, as he did with Jacob. Neither did God bring Ishmael into a covenant relationship with himself either. That's the whole point to the opening verses in Rom 9. There are two kinds of Jews: Children according to the flesh, and children according to the promise. Ishmael and Esau were of the former kind. Neither were true children of Abraham.
Without asking me any questions about what I believed or any dialogue concerning my views on salvation you
up and declared I blaspheme God by ascribing hatred of humanity to Him when I have never said or done any
such thing, and in fact, my every post proclaims His love. Try getting honest... though I rarely see such liars repent.
Then you pretend I am debating some straw man when I am addressing specific things said in these threads by
certain people over and over and over again. You did not say them? Bully for you.
Agreed. Many of the gifts provided by God's and man's unmerited favour are physically manifest. Man's grace is often selective. Men will often give unmerited gifts in one case, but not in another, based on the limits of the giver's resources. But God's resources are unlimited, so His ability to provide is universal and indiscriminate, and based on universal and indiscriminate conditions. Therefore, whether any particular person experiences God's gracious gifts being offered to all, depends on that person's accepting the gifts freely offered and receiving them by faith.Grace itself may be abstract but it's manifestations are concrete. Rain and sunshine are concrete. Salvation and faith are real things.
You did not get that impression. You made it up and posted it as a fact when you had absolutely nothing to base it on.I am glad you do not ascribe hatred of non-elect humanity to God,
and I apologize for getting the impression that you were one of those
Do you want to share your clarifying statement that would parallel mine?
lol touchéYes, I missed your joke, so I'm not as smart as you thought I was.
Yes, I do not remember discussing the kerygma with you.
Why did you think it seems Catholic? Is that bad?
(I guess you have not seen me being critical of papal infallibility :^)
I was raised as a Baptist but learned that OSAS contradicted Scripture teaching perseverance and omnilove,
so now I would say that I am a GW-loving ecumenical and kerygmatic Christian.
@studierI meant to finish what I started but missed doing so. Again, just supplementing @PaulThomson (PT) responses:
The 'through faith" part of Eph2:8 is relatively simple but again some decisions need to be made. From the same reference Greek Grammar Book:
Διά (dia)
A. Basic Uses (with Genitive and Accusative)
1. With Genitive
a. Agency: by, through
b. Means: through
c. Spatial: through
d. Temporal: through(out), during
2. With Accusative
a. Cause: because of, on account of, for the sake of
b. Spatial (rare): through
The phrase is dia + faith (genitive), so we can see how "through" is being chose as the translation. Also, the spatial chart for prepositions PT provided is an excellent tool to keep at hand.
The problem we can see above is "through" can be used to convey 3 different meanings.
I'm just going to put forth and example of how the translation 'by grace through faith' could be reconsidered. In the Instrumental category of the Dative [] grace we might consider [because of] grace you are (or have been) saved by means of faith not from/as a result of works, [of] God the gift. IOW because God is gracious and applies grace to man's situation, God saved man by the instrumentality of faith and not as a result of works (because man could not do such saving works), [of] God the gift. IOW, we can try these different concepts of classifying this grammar and see how it compares to the rest of Scripture.
There are a couple other considerations here that could help. "faith" in some manuscripts is anarthrous and in some is articular. I'm not checking all the evidence at the moment. The Greek article (the) is used differently than in English so we'd have to decide how it's being used if we conclude it should be there. If we so conclude, then it could open up a few interesting considerations, because at times "the faith" is not man's belief/faith, but is the Gospel. So, just a note.
Also, as I think I saw PT address, there is a verbal construction here that is not too unusual but is not the norm. It is speaking of or including something done/completed in the past. With all that's being said in context, e.g. the made alive, raised and seated together with Christ this also sounds to me like it's not just positional as many if not most interpret it, but more precisely Paul may be speaking of or including the fact that it's God's Salvation Plan (because of His grace and which uses the instrument of faith).
Fun, huh?
@studier
Here is an interesting verse with dia + accusative in one place and dia + genitive in second.
Rom 4:25
Who (hos) was delivered (paredothE) for our offences (dia hEmOn paraptOmata: accusative plural), and (kai) was raised (EgerthE) for our justification (dia hEmOn dikaiOsin: genitive singular).
So, dia + the accusative (dia paraptOmata).
Can we reason that dia + something conveys the sense of both entering and leaving that something as one complete act. Unless you both enter and leave, you did not go through. And the accusative implies movement toward, So the nuance conveyed in this dia + accusative combo is that, when Jesus was handed over, He both entered our offences (He was not bearing our offences, then He was). And He also left behind our offences (He was bearing them and then He was not). Hence "through our offences". And since the action in view is being handed over (to death), the movement involved in handing over is toward the thing through which the person is passing. Hence the accusative case is the natural choice. Jesus is being handed over into bearing our offences.
Now, dia + the genitive (dia dikaiOsin).
Can we reason the same regarding dia as above. Dia + something conveys the sense of both entering and leaving that something as one complete act. Unless you both enter and leave, you did not go through. And the genitive implies movement away from. So the nuance conveyed in this dia + genitive combo is that when Jesus was raised, He entered our justification (He was not justifying us, and then He was, by taking on our sins). And He left behind our justification (He was bearing our sins in death and then He was not, after being raised). Hence "through our justification" And since the action in view is being raised (out of death), the movement involved in raising is away from the thing through which the person is passing. Hence the genitive case is the natural choice. Jesus is being raised away from bearing our offences to justify us.
This can perhaps be summarised as: "He was handed over to the bearing of our offences for a season, and was raised out of the bearing of our offences, through which He had been justifying us."
Thank you for that correction. I was sure I chose the wrong denomination, in the back of my mind, when I wrote 'shekels', on one hand just wanting to quickly close my thought and on the other hand having a proclivity toward working as lazily in scholarship. But this would've bugged me, in the back of my mind for who knows how long until I saw "mites"! Truly, you have released me from a persistent annoyance, in the back of my ocd mind, that God knows might've irritated me indefinitely without resolution and left me at a loss about what it even was that was bothering me!What woman who gave two shekels? I know about the woman who gave two mites:
“Then one poor widow came and threw in two mites, which make a quadrans.” (Mr 12:42 NKJV)
I understand that there were 384 mites needed to make one shekel.
So so fun, really. I'm just glad to see that my idea of it is at least not impossible at this point. It makes me want to take up Greek, just as I also attempted an introduction to Hebrew. But, alas, I'm also considering taking up a fledgling study in nunchakus, or the staff... I can't decide...Fun, huh?
Not according to Ephesians 2, where Paul writes to the Christians at Ephesus:Faith/belief comes first although the experience may seem simultaneous.
So you are still in the same place.
Oh well.
Thanks! I am pleased you didn't take offence.Thank you for that correction. I was sure I chose the wrong denomination, in the back of my mind, when I wrote 'shekels', on one hand just wanting to quickly close my thought and on the other hand having a proclivity toward working as lazily in scholarship. But this would've bugged me, in the back of my mind for who knows how long until I saw "mites"! Truly, you have released me from a persistent annoyance, in the back of my ocd mind, that God knows might've irritated me indefinitely without resolution and left me at a loss about what it even was that was bothering me!![]()
That is one way of parsing the text: Verse 25 could be about those who are contemporaries of Mary, Martha and Jesus, and any of them that are believing in Jesus will be resurrected at the last day, if they die before the last day. And verse 26 is about the same people, that among those present, whoever is spiritually alive and/even believing will never die spiritually.Mr. PT yesterday (you know...our resident Gr. scholar) balked at my interpretation of Jn 11:26 and accused me of spiritualizing the text. Here's how vv. 25-26 read:
John 11:25-26
25 Jesus said to her, "I am the resurrection and the life. He who believes in me will live, even though he dies; 26 and whoever lives and believes in me will never die. Do you believe this?"
NIV
Verse 25 is most certainly speaking of the bodily resurrection. We can know this in two ways: A) the future tense of the verb "will live". This plainly speaks to a future event. And B) the death spoken of in the last part of the verse is physical. Jesus is comparing apples to apples. Believers will live [again] physically in the age to come even though in this age they physically die.
Verse 26 is structured the same way; yet notice the difference in verb tenses! "Whoever lives and believes" (PRESENT tense). And whoever does these things presently can be assured that they "will never die" (future tense). But the death spoken of here cannot possibly mean physical death, since all believers eventually die physically (save for the two biblical exceptions of Enoch and Elijah); therefore the death spoken of here can only be referring to the Second [eternal] Death (Rev 2:11; 20:6, 14; 21:8). Jesus once again is comparing apples with apples. Whoever possesses spiritual life in this present age will never experience spiritual, eternal death in the age to come!
And the third piece of evidence that this is the correct interpretation can be seen in the faith that is mentioned in this latter verse. PT maintained that v.26 is also talking about the physical resurrection; but this makes no sense whatsoever given the biblical definition of "faith". Mr. PT forgets that faith eventually gives way to SIGHT in the New Order. Who needs to believe what will be right before their very eyes and ears -- and indeed all their senses!? When all men stand before God, will they not have empirical proof of his existence?
Heb 11:1
11:1 Now faith is being sure of what we hope for and certain of what we do not see.
NIV
Therefore, the fact that Jesus links "living" [now] with "believing" [now] tells us immediately that he's talking about spiritual life and faith in this age! Faith is most certainly necessary in this age but not in the next one! In the age to come, no saint will any longer be hoping for anything, nor will there will be any uncertainity or doubt about God, his holy character or his Truth. Faith fades into the background because it will be replaced by Sight! And the fact that Jesus puts life before belief is highly significant and harmonizes with many other scriptures, including the NC promises in Ezek 36-37. Death must retreat from the Light of Life before the Darkness can comprehend it and believe the Gospel.