I do like the way some things are phrased in the king James ...for instance, the natural man is defined as darkness itself, and the Light has shone in the darkness ... king James version says darkness comprehendeth it not, whereas other versions say darkness has not overcome it. But we have free willers claiming that darkness comprehends the light enough to decide to believe it... Despite the gospel message being foolishness to them! Now that is what I call being foolish... to claim people make a "moral decision" to believe foolishness.
My KJV Debate with Jeffrey Dollar
- Thread starter Bible_Highlighter
- Start date
-
Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.
If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!
To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
I am very happy to here you are MAGA.
There is hope that you may see what I am talking about here someday.
It means you do look at the facts and you are amazed how the Leftist machine spins things (of whom we need to pray for).
I believe the same happens in the Modern Bible Movement.
For example, I have heard some Modern scholars make up non factual stuff about Erasmus, and King James, etcetera.
This of course is all to discredit the King James Bible.
Granted, I know there are a small few in the Modern Bible Movement today who do not agree with these Modern scholars.
But the problem is that this is an incorrect narrative that is being pushed by big names.
Yes, I know. My side does that with saying the archaic words in the KJV are not all that difficult (when it is difficult for many), but nobody is perfect in life. Some may find it easy to understand the KJV because they have no problem memorizing the long list of uncommon words in the KJV. But again, I see these archaic words as a blessing from God because they can offer an additional spiritual nuance that would be missing if you updated such words.
In any event, may God bless you in the name of Jesus (even if we disagree).
....
There is hope that you may see what I am talking about here someday.
It means you do look at the facts and you are amazed how the Leftist machine spins things (of whom we need to pray for).
I believe the same happens in the Modern Bible Movement.
For example, I have heard some Modern scholars make up non factual stuff about Erasmus, and King James, etcetera.
This of course is all to discredit the King James Bible.
Granted, I know there are a small few in the Modern Bible Movement today who do not agree with these Modern scholars.
But the problem is that this is an incorrect narrative that is being pushed by big names.
Yes, I know. My side does that with saying the archaic words in the KJV are not all that difficult (when it is difficult for many), but nobody is perfect in life. Some may find it easy to understand the KJV because they have no problem memorizing the long list of uncommon words in the KJV. But again, I see these archaic words as a blessing from God because they can offer an additional spiritual nuance that would be missing if you updated such words.
In any event, may God bless you in the name of Jesus (even if we disagree).
....
Your statement here appeals more to an opinion of my character (of which you know nothing about), and does not really relate to the facts at hand involving Scripture, history, and doctrine that supports the KJV. vs the Modern Bibles Please provide more stats, and facts to prove your case, instead. Also, feel free to disprove the points I made in favor for the KJV I provided so far. I don't believe any of the points I made so far have been refuted yet.
In the mean time, may God's good ways shine upon you greatly today.
....
In the mean time, may God's good ways shine upon you greatly today.
....
Concerning the KJV. No there is no hope of thatl. I grew up on the KJV, I used until from the time I first started going to church until my parents bought me a NKJV when I was 18. I have used that bible ever sense.
so I am well versed in the KJV I still have my mothers. and will read it from time to time just to feel close to her (she went home to be with the lord 10 years ago)
I grew up on the KJV, And I still today have problems understanding some of what it says.
And whether I use the KJV or the NKJV when I come upon something that does nto make sense. I revert to what the greek or hebrew says, and have found a more pure and better understanding of what God said then I could even come close to find when I just read any english bible.
so I am well versed in the KJV I still have my mothers. and will read it from time to time just to feel close to her (she went home to be with the lord 10 years ago)
I grew up on the KJV, And I still today have problems understanding some of what it says.
And whether I use the KJV or the NKJV when I come upon something that does nto make sense. I revert to what the greek or hebrew says, and have found a more pure and better understanding of what God said then I could even come close to find when I just read any english bible.
Well that is your opinion but I see it differently ----and you haven't proven anything about the KJV as far as I am concerned ---as all Bibles if properly researched which you have no intention of doing in case you are proven wrong --all say the same thing --
---And I have proven that ---your this and that Greek is so far fetched that you keep spouting out is all a bunch of nonsense ----the only difference in the Greek you posted --is punctuation -and layout on paper --it had nothing to do with Scripture ----------and I did post that -----
---
Here we go ------this is the KJB in your Greek
https://textusreceptusbibles.com/KJV1611
Textus Receptus Bibles
King James Bible 1611
Matthew Chapter: 1
1:1The booke of the generation of Iesus Christ, the sonne of Dauid, the sonne of Abraham.
1:2Abraham begate Isaac, and Isaac begate Iacob, and Iacob begate Iudas and his brethren.
1:3And Iudas begate Phares and Zara of Thamar, and Phares begate Esrom, and Esrom begate Aram.
1:4And Aram begate Aminadab, and Aminadab begate Naasson, and Naasson begate Salmon.
Matthew 1 New International Version
The Genealogy of Jesus the Messiah----
NOTE :======Posting NIV and yours underneath with the Textus Receptus text
1 This is the genealogy[a] of Jesus the Messiah[b] the son of David, the son of Abraham:
Your Translation -above ---
1:1The booke of the generation of Iesus Christ, the sonne of Dauid, the sonne of Abraham.
No difference --say the same think
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2 Abraham was the father of Isaac,Isaac the father of Jacob,Jacob the father of Judah and his brothers,
your translation from above
1:2 Abraham begate Isaac, and Isaac begate Iacob, and Iacob begate Iudas and his brethren
--No different --say the same thing --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3 Judah the father of Perez and Zerah, whose mother was Tamar, Perez the father of Hezrom ,Hezron the father of Ram,
your Translation here ----
1:3And Iudas begate Phares and Zara of Thamar, and Phares begate Esrom, and Esrom begate Aram.
so one translation uses ----Hezron ---one uses -----Esrom -----Both are right --one uses Ram one Aram -----both right
i say ====Now here we see different names ----buy if you research this you will see that they say the same thing --------no difference
Esrom or Hezrom Matthew 1:3-----same for Ram and Aram -----
Strong's Lexicon
Aram: Aram -----
Meaning: Ram, son of Hezron
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4 Ram the father of Amminadab,Amminadab the father of Nahshon,Nahshon the father of Salmon,
your from above
1:4 And Aram begate Aminadab, and Aminadab begate Naasson, and Naasson begate Salmon.
All saying the same thing
I could go on but my point is proven ------although I don't expect you to think so ------I think Satan as you duped -----
Now you have a great rest of the day ------
and May God clear your mind of your Text Dilemma--which doesn't exist by the way ------
---And I have proven that ---your this and that Greek is so far fetched that you keep spouting out is all a bunch of nonsense ----the only difference in the Greek you posted --is punctuation -and layout on paper --it had nothing to do with Scripture ----------and I did post that -----
---
Here we go ------this is the KJB in your Greek
https://textusreceptusbibles.com/KJV1611
Textus Receptus Bibles
King James Bible 1611
Matthew Chapter: 1
1:1The booke of the generation of Iesus Christ, the sonne of Dauid, the sonne of Abraham.
1:2Abraham begate Isaac, and Isaac begate Iacob, and Iacob begate Iudas and his brethren.
1:3And Iudas begate Phares and Zara of Thamar, and Phares begate Esrom, and Esrom begate Aram.
1:4And Aram begate Aminadab, and Aminadab begate Naasson, and Naasson begate Salmon.
Matthew 1 New International Version
The Genealogy of Jesus the Messiah----
NOTE :======Posting NIV and yours underneath with the Textus Receptus text
1 This is the genealogy[a] of Jesus the Messiah[b] the son of David, the son of Abraham:
Your Translation -above ---
1:1The booke of the generation of Iesus Christ, the sonne of Dauid, the sonne of Abraham.
No difference --say the same think
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2 Abraham was the father of Isaac,Isaac the father of Jacob,Jacob the father of Judah and his brothers,
your translation from above
1:2 Abraham begate Isaac, and Isaac begate Iacob, and Iacob begate Iudas and his brethren
--No different --say the same thing --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3 Judah the father of Perez and Zerah, whose mother was Tamar, Perez the father of Hezrom ,Hezron the father of Ram,
your Translation here ----
1:3And Iudas begate Phares and Zara of Thamar, and Phares begate Esrom, and Esrom begate Aram.
so one translation uses ----Hezron ---one uses -----Esrom -----Both are right --one uses Ram one Aram -----both right
i say ====Now here we see different names ----buy if you research this you will see that they say the same thing --------no difference
Esrom or Hezrom Matthew 1:3-----same for Ram and Aram -----
Strong's Lexicon
Aram: Aram -----
Meaning: Ram, son of Hezron
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4 Ram the father of Amminadab,Amminadab the father of Nahshon,Nahshon the father of Salmon,
your from above
1:4 And Aram begate Aminadab, and Aminadab begate Naasson, and Naasson begate Salmon.
All saying the same thing
I could go on but my point is proven ------although I don't expect you to think so ------I think Satan as you duped -----
Now you have a great rest of the day ------
and May God clear your mind of your Text Dilemma--which doesn't exist by the way ------
So, I read all of your responses. Although I give you an "A" for effort, I give you an "F-" as your final grade. Rather than waste my time giving a line by line refutation of all of your posts, I will simply document what Jesus truly said in the opening verses of John chapter 14 and who he actually said it to. Here is the text.
Jhn 14:1
Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me.
Jhn 14:2
In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.
Jhn 14:3
And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.
First, these words were spoken by Jesus at the last supper which was attended by him and his twelve apostles (Matt. 26:20, Mark 14:17, Luke 22:14).
Second, by the time Jesus uttered these words, Judas had already left to betray him (John 13:27-30), so Jesus was left speaking to only 11 of the 12 apostles. In other words, the words that Jesus spoke were intended for a tiny group of individuals, and not for all Christians throughout history. If you think that Jesus' targeted audience extended beyond these 11 apostles, then the onus is on you to prove the same from scripture.
Third, Jesus mentioned "my Father's house" to these 11 apostles, and as I have already documented in an earlier post, Jesus had previously defined "my Father's house" as being the temple in Jerusalem (John 2:13-17). This is reality; whether you like it or not.
Fourth, the Father's house is the tabernacle or temple all throughout scripture, and not just in what Jesus said in John chapter 2.
It is called "the house of the LORD" 213 times.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/search.cfm?Criteria=house+of+the+LORD&t=KJV#s=s_primary_0_1
It is called "the house of God" 85 times.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/search.cfm?Criteria=house+of+God&t=KJV#s=s_primary_0_1
It is called "the LORD's house" 20 times.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/search.cfm?Criteria=lord's+house&t=KJV#s=s_primary_0_1
It is called "thine house," with the "thine" being God, 3 times in Psalm 69:9, 93:5, and John 2:17.
It is called "the house of the God of Jacob" 2 times in Isaiah 2:3 and Micah 4:2.
In total, "my Father's house" is the tabernacle or temple of God at least 323 times in scripture.
Do you know how many times "my Father's house" is heaven in scripture?
ZERO!!!
And you expect me to believe your little fairy tale?
I will pass.
Fifth, never in biblical history has "my Father's house" had a "mansion" in it. It has had "rooms," "dwellings," or "abodes" in it though, and this is what the Greek word monē means. In fact, it only appears twice in the New Testament, and the other instance is in the same exact 14th chapter of John where it is properly translated as "abode."
Jhn 14:23
Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode G3438 with him.
Sixth, Jesus had previously said the following to his apostles to whom he was actually speaking in John 14:1-3.
Mat 19:27
Then answered Peter and said unto him, Behold, we have forsaken all, and followed thee; what shall we have therefore?
Mat 19:28
And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.
In the regeneration when the Son of man (Jesus) shall sit in the throne of his glory, or at Christ's second coming, the apostles will sit upon twelve thrones while judging the twelve tribes of Israel. Furthermore, when Christ returns, he will sit upon David's throne, and that throne will be located inside of the coming temple in Jerusalem.
Luk 1:30
And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God.
Luk 1:31
And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.
Luk 1:32
He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David:
Luk 1:33
And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.
With these things in mind, let us go back to our opening text to see what Jesus actually said to the 11 apostles he was speaking to.
Jhn 14:1
Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me.
Jhn 14:2
In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.
Jhn 14:3
And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.
Here, Jesus told his 11 apostles that "in my Father's house," or in the coming temple in Jerusalem, "there are many "rooms" or "dwellings." He also told them that he was going to prepare a place for them there. He then continued on to say "and if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also."
When Jesus comes again, where will he be?
In heaven or on earth?
He will be right here on earth, and he will be reigning over it from within a rebuilt temple in Jerusalem, and the 11 apostles to whom he was actually speaking will be there with him. Not only will they be sitting upon thrones while judging the tribes of Israel, but they will also have "rooms," or "abodes," or "dwellings" in the temple in Jerusalem to reside in.
This is what Jesus actually said. You would have us to believe that a promise that Jesus made to 11 apostles applies to every Christian. That is but one of your fatal errors. Of course, your biggest fatal error is that you have wrongly equated the promise related to "my Father's house" with heaven, without any scriptural precedent to do so, and you have also insisted that these "rooms," "abodes," or "dwellings" are mansions.
Why?
Because you stubbornly refuse to acknowledge that the KJV is terribly translated in certain places.
Anyhow, I am not going to get into a long back and forth with you on this. I have said enough already. Whatever you decide to do with it is entirely up to you.
Jhn 14:1
Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me.
Jhn 14:2
In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.
Jhn 14:3
And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.
First, these words were spoken by Jesus at the last supper which was attended by him and his twelve apostles (Matt. 26:20, Mark 14:17, Luke 22:14).
Second, by the time Jesus uttered these words, Judas had already left to betray him (John 13:27-30), so Jesus was left speaking to only 11 of the 12 apostles. In other words, the words that Jesus spoke were intended for a tiny group of individuals, and not for all Christians throughout history. If you think that Jesus' targeted audience extended beyond these 11 apostles, then the onus is on you to prove the same from scripture.
Third, Jesus mentioned "my Father's house" to these 11 apostles, and as I have already documented in an earlier post, Jesus had previously defined "my Father's house" as being the temple in Jerusalem (John 2:13-17). This is reality; whether you like it or not.
Fourth, the Father's house is the tabernacle or temple all throughout scripture, and not just in what Jesus said in John chapter 2.
It is called "the house of the LORD" 213 times.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/search.cfm?Criteria=house+of+the+LORD&t=KJV#s=s_primary_0_1
It is called "the house of God" 85 times.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/search.cfm?Criteria=house+of+God&t=KJV#s=s_primary_0_1
It is called "the LORD's house" 20 times.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/search.cfm?Criteria=lord's+house&t=KJV#s=s_primary_0_1
It is called "thine house," with the "thine" being God, 3 times in Psalm 69:9, 93:5, and John 2:17.
It is called "the house of the God of Jacob" 2 times in Isaiah 2:3 and Micah 4:2.
In total, "my Father's house" is the tabernacle or temple of God at least 323 times in scripture.
Do you know how many times "my Father's house" is heaven in scripture?
ZERO!!!
And you expect me to believe your little fairy tale?
I will pass.
Fifth, never in biblical history has "my Father's house" had a "mansion" in it. It has had "rooms," "dwellings," or "abodes" in it though, and this is what the Greek word monē means. In fact, it only appears twice in the New Testament, and the other instance is in the same exact 14th chapter of John where it is properly translated as "abode."
Jhn 14:23
Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode G3438 with him.
Sixth, Jesus had previously said the following to his apostles to whom he was actually speaking in John 14:1-3.
Mat 19:27
Then answered Peter and said unto him, Behold, we have forsaken all, and followed thee; what shall we have therefore?
Mat 19:28
And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.
In the regeneration when the Son of man (Jesus) shall sit in the throne of his glory, or at Christ's second coming, the apostles will sit upon twelve thrones while judging the twelve tribes of Israel. Furthermore, when Christ returns, he will sit upon David's throne, and that throne will be located inside of the coming temple in Jerusalem.
Luk 1:30
And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God.
Luk 1:31
And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.
Luk 1:32
He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David:
Luk 1:33
And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.
With these things in mind, let us go back to our opening text to see what Jesus actually said to the 11 apostles he was speaking to.
Jhn 14:1
Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me.
Jhn 14:2
In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.
Jhn 14:3
And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.
Here, Jesus told his 11 apostles that "in my Father's house," or in the coming temple in Jerusalem, "there are many "rooms" or "dwellings." He also told them that he was going to prepare a place for them there. He then continued on to say "and if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also."
When Jesus comes again, where will he be?
In heaven or on earth?
He will be right here on earth, and he will be reigning over it from within a rebuilt temple in Jerusalem, and the 11 apostles to whom he was actually speaking will be there with him. Not only will they be sitting upon thrones while judging the tribes of Israel, but they will also have "rooms," or "abodes," or "dwellings" in the temple in Jerusalem to reside in.
This is what Jesus actually said. You would have us to believe that a promise that Jesus made to 11 apostles applies to every Christian. That is but one of your fatal errors. Of course, your biggest fatal error is that you have wrongly equated the promise related to "my Father's house" with heaven, without any scriptural precedent to do so, and you have also insisted that these "rooms," "abodes," or "dwellings" are mansions.
Why?
Because you stubbornly refuse to acknowledge that the KJV is terribly translated in certain places.
Anyhow, I am not going to get into a long back and forth with you on this. I have said enough already. Whatever you decide to do with it is entirely up to you.
The English Language did not exist during both the Old Testament and New Testament eras so NO, God would never have considered using the English Language that was non existent at that time. And the fact that the English Language doesn't exist until well after the Bible is written shows us it's not any more special. Latin, Chinese, the Asian Dialects, even pagan cultures Languages existed before English did.
English is one of the last Languages to come into existence. So it ranks Last if we really want to be perfectly honest about it.
English is one of the last Languages to come into existence. So it ranks Last if we really want to be perfectly honest about it.
What God "can" do is irrelevant. What He actually did was inspire the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek texts. I don't believe He directly inspired the English wording of the KJV.
I'll ask you again, since you didn't answer: Do you believe that God inspired the English words of the KJV? If so, on what basis do you believe that?
I'll ask you again, since you didn't answer: Do you believe that God inspired the English words of the KJV? If so, on what basis do you believe that?
-
1
- Show all
First, most in the Modern Bible Movement refuse to acknowledge that they are following a movement started by questionable men named Westcott and Hort. They fail to grasp the gravity of how Westcott and Hort fellowshipped with a Unitarian named George Vance Smith. Smith was on the English Revised Version committee, and he wrote a book on how there were changed theological doctrines that favor Unitarianism with the ERV. It's titled, "Texts and Margins of the Revised New Testament." So, it should be then no surprise that we find that the deity of Christ is watered down in the two Alexandrian manuscripts Westcott and Hort preferred.
Second, most Christians would consider your viewpoint on how Jesus was only referring to only the 11 disciples here to be highly unbiblical and unorthodox. It simply cannot be supported by Scripture.
1. The Great Commission Includes Future Disciples
In Matthew 28:19-20, Jesus commands the disciples to teach all nations and instructs them to teach everything He had commanded them. This implies that His teachings—including those given at the Last Supper—were meant to be passed down to all future believers. If His words were only for the eleven, why would He command them to teach others to observe all that He had taught?
2. John’s Gospel Was Written for Future Believers
John explicitly states the purpose of his Gospel:
“But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.” (John 20:31)
If John's recording of Jesus' words was only meant for the eleven, then why would he write them for others to believe?
3. Jesus Prayed for Future Believers
In John 17, Jesus prays specifically for future believers:
“Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word.” (John 17:20)
This shows that Jesus expected His words to extend beyond the eleven apostles to all who would come to faith through their testimony.
4. The Holy Spirit’s Coming Was Not Just for the Eleven
Jesus promised the coming of the Comforter (Holy Spirit) in John 14:16-17, 26. This was not a promise limited to the eleven, but one given to all believers (see Acts 2:38-39, which states the promise is to "you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call").
5. Paul and Other Apostles Taught Jesus' Words as Authoritative for All Christians
The Apostle Paul, though not one of the eleven, quotes Jesus’ words as instructions for the whole church (e.g., 1 Corinthians 11:23-26, regarding the Lord’s Supper). This demonstrates that Jesus’ teachings were not restricted to the original eleven, but were applicable to the broader Christian community.
........
Second, most Christians would consider your viewpoint on how Jesus was only referring to only the 11 disciples here to be highly unbiblical and unorthodox. It simply cannot be supported by Scripture.
1. The Great Commission Includes Future Disciples
In Matthew 28:19-20, Jesus commands the disciples to teach all nations and instructs them to teach everything He had commanded them. This implies that His teachings—including those given at the Last Supper—were meant to be passed down to all future believers. If His words were only for the eleven, why would He command them to teach others to observe all that He had taught?
2. John’s Gospel Was Written for Future Believers
John explicitly states the purpose of his Gospel:
“But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.” (John 20:31)
If John's recording of Jesus' words was only meant for the eleven, then why would he write them for others to believe?
3. Jesus Prayed for Future Believers
In John 17, Jesus prays specifically for future believers:
“Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word.” (John 17:20)
This shows that Jesus expected His words to extend beyond the eleven apostles to all who would come to faith through their testimony.
4. The Holy Spirit’s Coming Was Not Just for the Eleven
Jesus promised the coming of the Comforter (Holy Spirit) in John 14:16-17, 26. This was not a promise limited to the eleven, but one given to all believers (see Acts 2:38-39, which states the promise is to "you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call").
5. Paul and Other Apostles Taught Jesus' Words as Authoritative for All Christians
The Apostle Paul, though not one of the eleven, quotes Jesus’ words as instructions for the whole church (e.g., 1 Corinthians 11:23-26, regarding the Lord’s Supper). This demonstrates that Jesus’ teachings were not restricted to the original eleven, but were applicable to the broader Christian community.
........
Well that is your opinion but I see it differently ----and you haven't proven anything about the KJV as far as I am concerned ---as all Bibles if properly researched which you have no intention of doing in case you are proven wrong --all say the same thing --
---And I have proven that ---your this and that Greek is so far fetched that you keep spouting out is all a bunch of nonsense ----the only difference in the Greek you posted --is punctuation -and layout on paper --it had nothing to do with Scripture ----------and I did post that -----
---
Here we go ------this is the KJB in your Greek
https://textusreceptusbibles.com/KJV1611
Textus Receptus Bibles
King James Bible 1611
Matthew Chapter: 1
1:1The booke of the generation of Iesus Christ, the sonne of Dauid, the sonne of Abraham.
1:2Abraham begate Isaac, and Isaac begate Iacob, and Iacob begate Iudas and his brethren.
1:3And Iudas begate Phares and Zara of Thamar, and Phares begate Esrom, and Esrom begate Aram.
1:4And Aram begate Aminadab, and Aminadab begate Naasson, and Naasson begate Salmon.
Matthew 1 New International Version
The Genealogy of Jesus the Messiah----
NOTE :======Posting NIV and yours underneath with the Textus Receptus text
1 This is the genealogy[a] of Jesus the Messiah[b] the son of David, the son of Abraham:
Your Translation -above ---
1:1The booke of the generation of Iesus Christ, the sonne of Dauid, the sonne of Abraham.
No difference --say the same think
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2 Abraham was the father of Isaac,Isaac the father of Jacob,Jacob the father of Judah and his brothers,
your translation from above
1:2 Abraham begate Isaac, and Isaac begate Iacob, and Iacob begate Iudas and his brethren
--No different --say the same thing --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3 Judah the father of Perez and Zerah, whose mother was Tamar, Perez the father of Hezrom ,Hezron the father of Ram,
your Translation here ----
1:3And Iudas begate Phares and Zara of Thamar, and Phares begate Esrom, and Esrom begate Aram.
so one translation uses ----Hezron ---one uses -----Esrom -----Both are right --one uses Ram one Aram -----both right
i say ====Now here we see different names ----buy if you research this you will see that they say the same thing --------no difference
Esrom or Hezrom Matthew 1:3-----same for Ram and Aram -----
Strong's Lexicon
Aram: Aram -----
Meaning: Ram, son of Hezron
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4 Ram the father of Amminadab,Amminadab the father of Nahshon,Nahshon the father of Salmon,
your from above
1:4 And Aram begate Aminadab, and Aminadab begate Naasson, and Naasson begate Salmon.
All saying the same thing
I could go on but my point is proven ------although I don't expect you to think so ------I think Satan as you duped -----
Now you have a great rest of the day ------
and May God clear your mind of your Text Dilemma--which doesn't exist by the way ------
---And I have proven that ---your this and that Greek is so far fetched that you keep spouting out is all a bunch of nonsense ----the only difference in the Greek you posted --is punctuation -and layout on paper --it had nothing to do with Scripture ----------and I did post that -----
---
Here we go ------this is the KJB in your Greek
https://textusreceptusbibles.com/KJV1611
Textus Receptus Bibles
King James Bible 1611
Matthew Chapter: 1
1:1The booke of the generation of Iesus Christ, the sonne of Dauid, the sonne of Abraham.
1:2Abraham begate Isaac, and Isaac begate Iacob, and Iacob begate Iudas and his brethren.
1:3And Iudas begate Phares and Zara of Thamar, and Phares begate Esrom, and Esrom begate Aram.
1:4And Aram begate Aminadab, and Aminadab begate Naasson, and Naasson begate Salmon.
Matthew 1 New International Version
The Genealogy of Jesus the Messiah----
NOTE :======Posting NIV and yours underneath with the Textus Receptus text
1 This is the genealogy[a] of Jesus the Messiah[b] the son of David, the son of Abraham:
Your Translation -above ---
1:1The booke of the generation of Iesus Christ, the sonne of Dauid, the sonne of Abraham.
No difference --say the same think
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2 Abraham was the father of Isaac,Isaac the father of Jacob,Jacob the father of Judah and his brothers,
your translation from above
1:2 Abraham begate Isaac, and Isaac begate Iacob, and Iacob begate Iudas and his brethren
--No different --say the same thing --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3 Judah the father of Perez and Zerah, whose mother was Tamar, Perez the father of Hezrom ,Hezron the father of Ram,
your Translation here ----
1:3And Iudas begate Phares and Zara of Thamar, and Phares begate Esrom, and Esrom begate Aram.
so one translation uses ----Hezron ---one uses -----Esrom -----Both are right --one uses Ram one Aram -----both right
i say ====Now here we see different names ----buy if you research this you will see that they say the same thing --------no difference
Esrom or Hezrom Matthew 1:3-----same for Ram and Aram -----
Strong's Lexicon
Aram: Aram -----
Meaning: Ram, son of Hezron
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4 Ram the father of Amminadab,Amminadab the father of Nahshon,Nahshon the father of Salmon,
your from above
1:4 And Aram begate Aminadab, and Aminadab begate Naasson, and Naasson begate Salmon.
All saying the same thing
I could go on but my point is proven ------although I don't expect you to think so ------I think Satan as you duped -----
Now you have a great rest of the day ------
and May God clear your mind of your Text Dilemma--which doesn't exist by the way ------
It is actually really easy to prove that all Bibles do not say the same thing.
These changes are for the worse, and not for the better, too.
#1. Modern Bibles remove the command to study to show yourself approved unto God (Which is a translation difference) (See: 2 Timothy 2:15).
#2. Modern Bibles remove the command that you are not to fellowship with those believers who think that gain is godliness (1 Timothy 6:5) (This is a underlying textual difference).
#3. Modern Bibles remove the part about fasting to cast out persistent or strong demons (Matthew 17:21). This is an underlying textual difference. I can personally testify that fasting works to cast out demons. So the enemy does not want you to know about this truth in the KJV.
#4. John 1:18 (NAS-95, AMP, LSB), and Micah 5:2 (NIV, ESV, CSB) teach that the Living Word (second person of the Trinity) that was made flesh had a beginning and is not eternal. This is heretical. These are underlying textual differences.
#5. Modern Bibles make it appear like Jesus sinned in several different verses (See: Titus 3:10 cf. Luke 12:51) (See: Matthew 5:22 cf. Mark 3:5) (Zechariah 13:6 TLB cf. Matthew 26:52-53, Luke 6:27-29, John 18:36). This is heretical.
#6. Modern Bibles falsely teach that Jesus gave up His divine privileges or He emptied himself (Philippians 2:7 NLT, ESV). I actually have a large list of verses proving that while Jesus operated by the power of the Father, and the Spirit, He also operated by His own active power during His earthly ministry. So Modern Bibles are teaching something that is contrary to Scripture.
#7. The one only clearest verse on the Trinity is removed in Modern Bibles at 1 John 5:7. This is the only direct reference of the Trinity in the Bible. What makes this removal even worse is that Westcott and Hort moved the last sentence in verse 6 to try and hide the change in verse 7. Then later Modern Translators changed the first couple of words in verse 8 and moved it to where the Johannine Comma should go (i.e., the beautiful and glorious Trinity verse in the KJV). Anti-Trinitarians love Modern Bibles because it does not have this verse in their Westcott and Hort Modern Bible.
#8. Some Modern Bibles leave room for a person to wrongfully justify abortion (Luke 1:15 GNT, ISV).
#9. Modern Bibles attack Biblical divorce in Matthew 19:9, changing the word "fornication" to "sexual immorality" (ESV, NKJV), or just the word "immorality." (NAS-95, NET).
#10. Modern Bibles teach that you should wish castration upon some people (GNT, HSCB, ISV, NIV).
I could keep going, but hopefully this should suffice.
....
I would not utter a positive word about Westcott and Hort if you put a gun to my head, so this is totally irrelevant.
An "appeal to authority." Nice.
I already supported it by scripture.
Yawn.
If you understood anything about the Christian's inheritance (you do not), then you would know that a "mansion" is definitely not a part of the same.
Anyhow, as expected, all that you have proven here is that you are a disgrace to people like me who read the KJV because you stubbornly, proudly, and defiantly refuse to admit that it is translated terribly in certain places.
An "appeal to authority." Nice.
I already supported it by scripture.
Yawn.
If you understood anything about the Christian's inheritance (you do not), then you would know that a "mansion" is definitely not a part of the same.
Anyhow, as expected, all that you have proven here is that you are a disgrace to people like me who read the KJV because you stubbornly, proudly, and defiantly refuse to admit that it is translated terribly in certain places.
I am curious. When do you think it is okay to justify the idea that the Modern Bible Movement is okay when it is connected with Unitarians, Catholics, liberals, and more? I am also curious as to why you think all the changed doctrines that are for the worse are no big deal, as well? I just listed a few of them in my previous post. Check them out.
....
....
Pretty much as I expected - totally dodged the questions. Also, I never said anything about "changed doctrines" being a problem or not; so projecting on me an argument I never made only makes you look desperate. But, I'll ask again - what method of translation is 'inspired'? Please post scripture (it can even be KJV!) to support your belief.