James 2:14-26, A verse by verse study
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I disagree. James is completely in harmony with the doctrine of Christ and very relevant to Christian’s. Yes, he writes to Jews, but these Jews are Christian’s. He is not trying to convert them to Christ—they are already “”converted” and he calls them “brethren” over and over in the book. I know this because chpt. 1:25, he tells these Jews to “CONTINUE” in “the perfect law of liberty. Those words are used to describe the law of Jesus Christ in Galations 2:4, 5:1, 13. The old Jewish law on the other hand was called a “law of BONDAGE in Galations 4:21-31 and again in chapter. 5:1. So, I know he is writing to Christian’s.
In chat. 2:1 James calls them “brethren” and says they share a faith in Jesus Christ: “the faith of OUR Lord Jesus Christ.” These Jews he was writing to are “believers” and his fellow Christians. But there’s more. Verse 13 says they “have been CALLED” by the law of liberty (Christ’s law). He writes to them about the works of Christ that accompany salvation in verses 14-26. “faith only” was not a doctrine of Judaism. It was a belief in the doctrine of Christ. Why bother these Jews with such things if they are not even Christian’s in the first place??
In chat 5:7, he again calls them brethren and tells them to be “patient” until the “coming of the Lord.” These Christian Jews are anxiously awaiting the “coming of the Lord.” This, along with all of the others I have given, proves that James is writing to Christian’s—Jews, yes—but Christian’s, Believers in Christ, who are continuing in His law of liberty, and patiently waiting for the coming of Christ their Saviour.
It is a very common practice of opponents of the Bible to dismiss anything that does not agree with their doctrine by trying to discredit the author, the book, or the scripture that exposes their error. Yes, it would be very convenient for those holding on to the doctrine of “faith only” if they could just eliminate the book of James. How else are they going to answer or justify their false doctrine? They can’t, so the best way to handle it is to say that the book of James is not “doctrinal”, was not written for Christians, and should not be in the cannon of scripture.
They do the same thing to Mark 16:16 because it teaches baptism is necessary to be saved. They can’t answer or explain it so they try to discredit it.
John 12:48- “He who rejects Me and DOES NOT RECEIVE MY WORDS, has that which judges him—-the word that I have spoken will judge him in the last day.” Be careful what you reject.
In chat. 2:1 James calls them “brethren” and says they share a faith in Jesus Christ: “the faith of OUR Lord Jesus Christ.” These Jews he was writing to are “believers” and his fellow Christians. But there’s more. Verse 13 says they “have been CALLED” by the law of liberty (Christ’s law). He writes to them about the works of Christ that accompany salvation in verses 14-26. “faith only” was not a doctrine of Judaism. It was a belief in the doctrine of Christ. Why bother these Jews with such things if they are not even Christian’s in the first place??
In chat 5:7, he again calls them brethren and tells them to be “patient” until the “coming of the Lord.” These Christian Jews are anxiously awaiting the “coming of the Lord.” This, along with all of the others I have given, proves that James is writing to Christian’s—Jews, yes—but Christian’s, Believers in Christ, who are continuing in His law of liberty, and patiently waiting for the coming of Christ their Saviour.
It is a very common practice of opponents of the Bible to dismiss anything that does not agree with their doctrine by trying to discredit the author, the book, or the scripture that exposes their error. Yes, it would be very convenient for those holding on to the doctrine of “faith only” if they could just eliminate the book of James. How else are they going to answer or justify their false doctrine? They can’t, so the best way to handle it is to say that the book of James is not “doctrinal”, was not written for Christians, and should not be in the cannon of scripture.
They do the same thing to Mark 16:16 because it teaches baptism is necessary to be saved. They can’t answer or explain it so they try to discredit it.
John 12:48- “He who rejects Me and DOES NOT RECEIVE MY WORDS, has that which judges him—-the word that I have spoken will judge him in the last day.” Be careful what you reject.
And you know this how? What scripture tells you that? The devils know and believe that Jesus is Lord. That’s why they tremble. You can’t tell them anything about Christ that they don’t already know; they know and believe in who He is. They are aware of his power. You think you know more about Christ than they do?
Wow! You need to go back and re-read those verses. James is not questioning whether Faith saves—he is questioning whether faith “alone” without works, saves. The only people who does not believe that faith saves are the atheists. The question in verse 14 is “can faith (without works) save you?” The question in verse 20 is “ do you not know that faith without works is dead?” The question in verse 22 is, “Can’t you see that faith works together WITH works, and by works faith is made perfect?”
The question in verse 25 is “WASNT Rahab justified by works when she hid God’s messengers?” Where did he lose you?
The question in verse 25 is “WASNT Rahab justified by works when she hid God’s messengers?” Where did he lose you?
Of course, the OT prophets wrote of many things that were not applicable to them, yes? Why would things change in the NT? Where is the doctrine for the tribulation Jew found? Wouldn't God give them instructions as well?
I believe the fulfillment of things could have taken place in the first century, including the time of Jacob's trouble and the 2nd coming of Christ, if only the Jews would have received Jesus.
I believe the fulfillment of things could have taken place in the first century, including the time of Jacob's trouble and the 2nd coming of Christ, if only the Jews would have received Jesus.
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I disagree. James is completely in harmony with the doctrine of Christ and very relevant to Christian’s. Yes, he writes to Jews, but these Jews are Christian’s. He is not trying to convert them to Christ—they are already “”converted” and he calls them “brethren” over and over in the book. I know this because chpt. 1:25, he tells these Jews to “CONTINUE” in “the perfect law of liberty. Those words are used to describe the law of Jesus Christ in Galations 2:4, 5:1, 13. The old Jewish law on the other hand was called a “law of BONDAGE in Galations 4:21-31 and again in chapter. 5:1. So, I know he is writing to Christian’s.
In chat. 2:1 James calls them “brethren” and says they share a faith in Jesus Christ: “the faith of OUR Lord Jesus Christ.” These Hews he was writing to are “believers” and his fellow Christians. But three’s more. Verse 13 says they “have been CALLED” by the law of liberty (Christ’s law). He writes to them about the works of Christ that accompany salvation in verses 14-26. “faith only” was not a doctrine of Judaism. It was a belief in the doctrine of Christ. Why bother these Jews with such things if they are not even Christian’s in the first place??
In chat 5:7, he again calls them brethren and tells them to be “patient” until the “coming of the Lord.” These Christian Jews are anxiously awaiting the “coming of the Lord.” This, along with all of the others I have given, proves that James is writing to Christian’s—Jews, yes—but Christian’s, Believers in Christ, who are continuing in His law of liberty, and patiently waiting for the coming of Christ their Saviour.
It is a very common practice of opponents of the Bible to dismiss anything that does not agree with their doctrine by trying to discredit the author, the book, or the scripture that exposes their error. Yes, it would be very convenient for those holding on to the doctrine of “faith only” if they could just eliminate the book of James. How else are they going to answer or justify their false doctrine? They can’t, so the best way to handle it is to say that the book of James is not “doctrinal”, was not written for Christians, and should not be in the cannon of scripture.
They do the same thing to Mark 16:16 because it teaches baptism is necessary to be saved. They can’t answer or explain it away so they simply try to discredit it.
In chat. 2:1 James calls them “brethren” and says they share a faith in Jesus Christ: “the faith of OUR Lord Jesus Christ.” These Hews he was writing to are “believers” and his fellow Christians. But three’s more. Verse 13 says they “have been CALLED” by the law of liberty (Christ’s law). He writes to them about the works of Christ that accompany salvation in verses 14-26. “faith only” was not a doctrine of Judaism. It was a belief in the doctrine of Christ. Why bother these Jews with such things if they are not even Christian’s in the first place??
In chat 5:7, he again calls them brethren and tells them to be “patient” until the “coming of the Lord.” These Christian Jews are anxiously awaiting the “coming of the Lord.” This, along with all of the others I have given, proves that James is writing to Christian’s—Jews, yes—but Christian’s, Believers in Christ, who are continuing in His law of liberty, and patiently waiting for the coming of Christ their Saviour.
It is a very common practice of opponents of the Bible to dismiss anything that does not agree with their doctrine by trying to discredit the author, the book, or the scripture that exposes their error. Yes, it would be very convenient for those holding on to the doctrine of “faith only” if they could just eliminate the book of James. How else are they going to answer or justify their false doctrine? They can’t, so the best way to handle it is to say that the book of James is not “doctrinal”, was not written for Christians, and should not be in the cannon of scripture.
They do the same thing to Mark 16:16 because it teaches baptism is necessary to be saved. They can’t answer or explain it away so they simply try to discredit it.
No need to eliminate anything; The Great Need is to "study All of It [ God's Word Of Truth ]
Rightly Divided!" i.e.:
I have decided to follow Jesus?
Amen.
Rightly Divided!" i.e.:
I have decided to follow Jesus?
Amen.
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Sure there are prophecies in the OT that refer to future times, but all the promises of God are fulfilled in Christ. They all pointed to Him. Jesus has already come and done His thing. The old covenant is now gone and there only remains the covenant of grace wherein there is no difference between Greek or Jew. Under what covenant do you believe this occurs?
Thats easy. I’ve already explained that in my post to Magenta, because she brought up the same scripture in Ephesians; but I am glad to go over it again.
There are at least 4 or five different types of “works” talked about in the New Testanent. Most of them are bad and will not save you, like the works in Ephesians 2:8-9. (1) These are “boastful” works. They originate with man—not God, which is why they can “boast” about them. Like 17 tells us when we have done what God says we cannot boast because we have only done what was our DUTY to do.
These works are not the ones talked about in the book of James. Read on.
(2) There are also “works of the old (Jewish) law that some Jews in the book of Galations were trying to use to be saved. These are mentioned all over the book but specifically in chapter. 2:16. Paul says if you try to be saved by these works “you are fallen from grace.” 5:4. These certainly are not the ones James is talking about.
(3) But now we come to the book of John. And in the book of John chat 6 verses 28-29 we read the people came to Jesus and asked Him. “ What must we do to work the WORKS OF GOD?” This one verse alone tells me that God has his own works—they originate with Him, are commanded by Him and are associated with salvation. Also, these are works that we MUST DO. Verse 29 is the shocker! Jesus said, “ This is the WORK OF GOD that you BELIEVE…”. Faith is a work—but it is a work of God. Paul also says that faith is a work in 1 Thess. 1:3 and 2 Thess. 1:11 These are the works that James is talking about—not the boastful works of Ephesians 2 and not the works in Galations 2, but he is talking about the works in John 6. Once you understand that all works are not the same, that there are different kinds, it becomes clear that obviously James is talking about the works of God—not the “boastful ones” or the works of the old Jewish law. We know this because the works in James 2 are works that “save” and justify. All of the other works condemn.
There are many other prophecies concerning Christ at his second coming that are yet to be fulfilled.
In this present dispensation of the grace of God, there is no difference between the Jew or Greek. But when this time is done, the Lord will fulfill his covenant with his physical people Israel.
In this present dispensation of the grace of God, there is no difference between the Jew or Greek. But when this time is done, the Lord will fulfill his covenant with his physical people Israel.
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