Understanding the Incarnation

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Jul 31, 2013
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#41
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The so-called original sin is commonly believed to be inherited from one's
natural father. Oh? From whence did Eve get it?


She was fully formed and constructed with material taken from Adam's body
prior to his tasting the forbidden fruit so it was too late for him to pass his
mistake on to her by means of heredity.


FAQ: Did Jesus' virgin conception insulate him from the original sin?

REPLY: No.

FAQ: Why not?

REPLY: Because Adam's mistake isn't transmitted by means of heredity.

Note the grammatical tense of the verse below-- it's past tense rather than
either present or future; indicating that Adam's entire posterity was
slammed right then, i.e. we were all made joint principals with him in his
sin the very moment Adam took the first bite-- no delay and no waiting
period.


Rom 5:12 . .Through one man sin entered into the world, and death
through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned.


FAQ: How then can it be honestly said Jesus was a lamb without spot or
blemish?


REPLY: Jesus was collateral damage, i.e. he committed no sins of his own to
answer for (John 8:29, 2Cor 5:21, Heb 4:15, 1Pet 2:22) In point of fact,
according to 1John 3:9 it was impossible for Jesus to commit sins of his own.


FAQ: Wasn't Adam's mistake a sin unto Hell?

REPLY: No; the primary retribution for Adam tasting the forbidden fruit was
just simply his loss of immortality. He was hit with a few other consequences
too, but mortality was the main one. In other words: had Jesus not been
crucified he would've eventually died of some other cause.
_
if God causes the sinless to die God is unjust. The scriptures are clear that sin spread to all men through Adam and death through sin. there was no death on earth before Adam and Woman fell, and there is no death in any creature apart from sin.

Christ lays His own life down and takes it up again. No one can take it from Him.

The only reason the other animals die is that God cursed the ground, on Adam's behalf: see Romans 8, and ask why Leviticus prescribed animal sacrifices.

Jesus Christ did not decay.
In Him is no sin therefore in Him is neither any death nor any decay.
 
Oct 19, 2024
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#42
  • Adam and his wife both confessed their sin at first opportunity.
  • You should not consider them so stupid that they thought they could hide from God. The choice of fig leaves is profound, and they were afraid - not of God, whom they immediately answered when He called, but of their shame.
  • They were not cursed. Instead God she'd innocent blood to cover them with garments made by His own hand. He then prevented them from being able to enter eternal death and "kept" the way to the tree of life for their sake. That is Salvation.
  • Adam did not blame his wife. God would never accept such an answer, but accepted Adam's answer. Adam's answer indicacatwd his actions were out of his responsibility and love for her.
  • Adam was not deceived. Not by Satan, not by his wife, and not by himself. he sinned with full and accurate knowledge of what he was doing.
  • Paul does not "blame" Woman in Corinthians: he is not self-contradictory. Romans 5 is very clear that tho Woman was first in sin, sin spread to all men through Adam, and through sin, also death. Adam when he met his wife after she had sinned was a perfect, sinless human being interacting with a dying, sinful human being. he made a choice to join her, fully aware of what he was doing and not under any kind of delusion about the act or what it would result in.
Hmmm. At least you provided scriptural support for the last item, although I did not mean that Paul contradicted himself but rather that he blamed both for the first sin--perhaps because they were "one flesh" (GN 2:24)--although he held Adam to be more responsible, perhaps because he was created first and thus ahead of his wife in receiving God's command (pun intended :^). We are not told who added the words "and you must not touch it" to God's Word, which was a sin and perhaps made the proscription seem unreasonable.
 

Webers.Home

Well-known member
May 28, 2018
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cfbac.org
#43
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The Serpent was somehow aware the fruit posed no danger to the woman;
so if he could get her to try it, and see for herself it was safe to eat, then the
Serpent would have the ally he needed to persuade the man to do something
contrary to his better judgment.

But I think Adam was at least cautious at first, and kept a wary eye on his
wife for some time waiting to see if she would get sick; and when she didn't,
he surely had to wonder if maybe he misunderstood God.

I think most husbands would sympathize with Adam. I mean: he was told by
a supposedly competent source that the forbidden tree was unfit for human
consumption. But here's your unashamed naked wife happily munching
away and she's still healthy, lucid, and exhibiting no ill side effects. How is a
rational man supposed to argue with empirical evidence as good as that?

That event is handy for showing just how stupid men can be when it comes to
their association with women. For example:

Gen 6:1-2 . . Now it came about, when men began to multiply on the face
of the land, and daughters were born to them, that the sons of God saw that
the daughters of men were good; and they took wives for themselves,
whomever they chose.

The characteristics of the "sons of God" have been debated. Some say they
were members of the aristocracy of that day who married attractive women
from among the commoners. Others say they were renegade spirit creatures
who donned fully functioning human avatars so they could cohabit with
women; thus producing a hybrid strain of hominid freaks. Others say they
were God-fearing men who threw caution to the wind and built themselves
harems of pagan women.

The latter seems the more likely seeing as how intermarriage between
believers and unbelievers is often frowned upon in both the Old Testament
and the New.

* The label "sons of God" is somewhat versatile in the Old Testament. For
example in Job 1:6 & Job 38:7 it pertains to angels, whereas in Ex 4:22-23
an entire people are identified as God's son, and in Psalm 82 authorities are
sons of God, while in Psalm 89 king David is God's son.

Anyway: hooking up men of faith with infidel women is a proven tactic for
watering down, compromising, and even extinguishing Bible beliefs and
practices (e.g. Num 31:7-16). The people of God are strictly, unequivocally,
and clearly forbidden to marry outside their faith, and that goes for
Christians too. (Deut 7:1-4, 2Cor 6:14-18)

Women can be very effective in influencing an otherwise pious man to
compromise his convictions; for example Solomon got off to a good start but
down the road accumulated a harem of foreign women who led him into
idolatry; which subsequently caused The Lord to engineer rebellion in the
kingdom. (1Kgs 11 & 12)

Anyway: the sons of God in Noah's day-- whose wives were chosen based
solely upon sensual allure sans any spiritual prudence whatsoever --all
perished in the Flood right along with their infidel wives and children. Not
even one of them had the good sense to go aboard the ark with Noah.

Chantilly lace and a pretty face,
And a ponytail hangin' down.
A wiggle in her walk and a giggle in her talk,
Make the world go 'round, round, round.

Ain't nothing in the world like a big-eyed girl,
To make me act so funny, make me spend my money.
Make me feel real loose like a long necked goose,
Oh baby, that's a-what I like!
Chantilly Lace 1958
Song by J.P. Richardson, a.k.a. The Big Bopper

_
 
Oct 28, 2024
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#44
if God causes the sinless to die, God is unjust.
Of course, but God couldn't find anyone on earth who was without sin,
so He sent the Word (who was God) to become His Son to do the job.

I've always thought that ...
if He could have found someone else,
God Himself would not have had to come and do the job.
Why did God Himself have to die for our sins?

IMO, the important point here is ...
some sinless human had to die for our sins!
So, God Himself became a human, and the rest is history.
OK ... am I off-base, or what?