I suppose I should first ask you to define what you mean by "free will" -
Do you mean that man is not free to choose?
Or do you mean that man has no will, no choice, no volition (synonyms of "will") - no faculty to choose?
Since this is your next sentence, it looks like you're saying man has no freedom [of will] because he's a slave.
So, man has no will - no ability to choose - no volition - because he's a slave?
Or does man have volition, but it's not free to choose?
If we start at the beginning:
When God commanded the first man and woman not to eat from the tree, was God's command issued to man who was unable or able to choose?
When the woman was deceived and ate, did she choose or not choose to eat?
When the man was not deceived and ate, did he choose or not choose to eat?
In general, are commands given to man who has volition, or does not have volition - IOW, what's the purpose of a command?