Because the Text is meant to show the process of God but the usage of some words reveal you are attempting to make into a LAW when there's no such intention.
You are taking the usage of "τούτους" to create a meaning not intended.
Kind of like John 3:16 usage of "world" and turning it into only the saved when it means the entire world.
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Whosoever to mean someone specific.
"Whosoever" means all who believe, according to the context.
But beyond that the "world" to the mindset of ancient Jews meant only Gentile Nations, as explained previously! The ancient Jews never thought of themselves as being part of the world of Gentiles. The ancient Jews disassociated themselves from the Gentile nations; for all Gentiles were unclean, uncircumcised and unholy. Therefore, just by this fact alone, the term "world" in Jn 3:16 must be understood in the same way as John's original audience -- as being used in the limited sense.
Moreover, John proves this fact conclusively later on in 1Jn 2:2 whereby he makes a distinction between himself and his primarily Jewish audience and the world. Since John excludes himself and his Jewish audience from the world, then the phrase "whole world" can only be logically understood in the limited sense to mean Gentile nations. And that is the way it's used also in Jn 3:16. No ancient Jew would have ever thought of the nation of Israel as being part of the world of Gentiles! Israel was the chosen nation of God; the Gentile nations were totally excluded from the covenant relationship that the nation of Israel exclusively had with God.
So, yes, the "whosovers" of Jn 3:16 is referring to Gentile believers who compirse the world-- not the Jews. The "whosover" qualifies the noun "world".
Also, this interpretation doesn't present any contradictions with other scriptures the way a unviersal interpretation does. God most emphatically does not love each and every person in the world per a large hosts of OT scriptures.
And this interpreation is in sync with the Last Supper passages that teach that Jesus laid down his life for
many or for
you (the disciples in the upper room with Him). See Mat 26:28; Mk 14:24; Lk 22:19. So, how in the real world does "many" = all in the world in the distrubitive sense?
And the proper interpetation of Jn 3:16 explains nicely why Jesus explicitly excluded the world in his High Priestly prayer to his Father (Jn 17:9). Jesus' prayer is limited for his elect because this is for whom he died -- per Jesus' own words at the Last Supper.
None of what I just wrote presents any problem whatsoever with any scripture.
