I really didn't want to get into this discussion; however, I feel that I should point out that rain would be the common normal occurrence since the very beginning of when the current system came into existence/operation. The question is - when did that occur?
By virtue of the 'physics' involved, it stands to reason that it has rained ever since clouds first formed in the open firmament above.
If it was creation week, then it has rained since then.
If it was the flood ['event'] itself that somehow caused it to come into existence/operation, then it has rained [only] since then.
The question to answer is - when did clouds first appear in the open firmament above?
Well, in our discussions about if the Flood rains came from the 3rd heaven (Romans34's assertion) ... the question of when it first rained is really irrelevant. If it rained before the Flood, that's not directly a reason to exclude the possibility of waters coming from the 3rd heaven, for those who want to believe it. And if it first rained during the Flood, there's no reason to conclude it came from the 3rd heaven, especially because I don't see anyone suggesting today's rain pores from the 3rd heaven.
I agree with your assertion, "By virtue of the 'physics' involved, it stands to reason that it has rained ever since clouds first formed in the open firmament above. If it was creation week, then it has rained since then." I really don't understand any reason to desire to doubt that.
I think there is scriptural reason to believe it rained before the Flood. We have an interpretation of Gen 2:4-7:
"4These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the LORD God made the earth and the heavens, 5And every plant of the field before it was in the earth, and every herb of the field before it grew: for the LORD
God had not caused it to rain upon the earth, and there was not a man to till the ground. 6
But there went up a mist from the earth, and watered the whole face of the ground. 7And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul."
First of all, WHEN was this? Before God created man, the 5th day, and also when God created man, 6th day.
First of all, what's the difference between the mist rising up from the earth watering the whole of the earth -- and clouds that rain down and water the whole earth? Elevation? Or maybe nothing at all? Mist and clouds are the same substance: water vapor. In fact, the verses may not be indicating a difference in elevation at all. Where else is this hebrew word for mist used?
The hebrew word here is וְאֵ֖ד, translated here (KJV) as mist. That word וְאֵ֖ד is also used Job 36:27, translated in the KJV as vapour:
26Behold, God [is] great, and we know [him] not, neither can the number of his years be searched out.
27For he maketh small the drops of water: they pour down rain according to the vapour thereof: 28Which the clouds do drop [and] distil upon man abundantly. 29Also can [any] understand the spreadings of the clouds, [or] the noise of his tabernacle?
Here we read, this same word mist/vapour, causes it to rain. And so, one might read Gen 2:6 as God caused it rain on the garden for Adam to work.
In this context, I would read Gen 2:4-7 as: It hadn't yet rained and there was not a man to till the ground. But then, there went up a mist and watered the whole face of the ground. And God created Adam. That is, it hadn't yet rained, and then it did rain.
But as I said, there doesn't seem to be any reason for anyone to want to propose it didn't rain before the Flood. No where does the Flood story read it hadn't rained before. It just reads it rained. It doesn't relate that anybody was surprised it rained. Does anyone think rain is useless? If rain was created for the Flood, why would it still be raining? I just can't fathom the reason for the notion.