Why do you say it is "not a valid question" since you pretty much just stated that God
wrote the script (before time)
for it to happen (in time)... You are not making sense to me.
Which is it? Did He or didn't He?
In one breath you say (essentially) that
He scripted everything (before time) to happen as it does (in time), and then you say He "
allows" it to happen (as though He hasn't "scripted" it [before time] to happen [in time])... and can't bring yourself to answer directly, the question: Did God
script that
to happen (did He write it in the script [before time] that that child molester would molest that child when and where he did [in time], or did He not... and only "allowed" it to happen?)
Perhaps study two of the Greek words for "will":
boulē or
boulomai and
thelēma ... for starters.
Then maybe think about verses such as the following (
and how they might fit into your ideas you've expressed, or not):
Jeremiah 19 (was this His "will" or does it sound like it was
NOT His will, for them to do?) -
4because they have abandoned Me and made this a foreign place.
They have burned incense in this place to other gods that neither they nor their fathers nor the kings of Judah have ever known.
They have filled this place with the blood of the innocent.
5They have built high places to Baal on which to burn their children in the fire as offerings to Baal—
something I never commanded or mentioned, nor did it even enter My mind.
[or is it, 'I scripted it to take place [before time], therefore it took place [in time]']