Because it refers to God's "torah" - His "torah" was not the Torah given to Moses (see the next reply). The following of Moses's Torah for spiritual justification results in death not life. Just because the word "torah" was used in that verse, doesn't make it have the meaning you've assigned to it. The meaning of that verse is that there would be a new torah - a new "law" - one through Christ. By Him, a new torah (law) would be introduced, not the one God gave to Moses - that torah was done away with and replaced. This is confirmed in Heb 7:12. To come to correct understanding, you need to compare spiritual with spiritual in scripture.
The statutes
[Eze 20:25 KJV] 25 Wherefore I gave them also statutes [that were] not good, and judgments whereby they should not live;
In Deuteronomy 5:31-33, Moses wrote down everything that God commanded him without departing from it, so the Torah of Moses is the Torah of God, and it is referred to as being the Torah of God in verses like Nehemiah 8:1-8, Ezra 7:6-12, and Luke 2:22-23. The Bible is abundantly clear that obeying the Torah of Moses leads to life and not obeying it leads to death (Deuteronomy 30:11-20, Deuteronomy 32:46-47, Proverbs 3:18, Proverbs 6:23, Matthew 19:17, Luke 10:25-28, Romans 2:6-7, Romans 6:19-23, Hebrews 5:9, Revelation 22:14). Moreover, Ezekiel 20 confirms three times that obeying the Torah of Moses leads to life, so it is clear to anyone who has read that chapter that you are deliberately taking verse 25 out of context by suggesting that it referring to the Torah of Moses.
In Deuteronomy 30, it is the basis for the New Covenant, where it prophesies about a time when the Israelites would return from exile, God would circumcise their hearts, and they would return to obedience to the Torah, which is what Jeremiah 31:33 and Ezekiel 36:26-27 as speaking in regard to. They notably say nothing about there being a "new Torah" nor did Jesus teach anything about a "new Torah" replacing the Torah of Moses, but rather the sum of everything he taught by word and by example was in accordance with the Torah of Moses. Jesus is God's word made flesh, so he taught us how to embody God's word, not to rebel against it.
Yes, there is a rule that says exactly that, and I showed it to you in the verses that I posted previously. They were written by God through Paul; man did not write them.
I think that Hebrews was inspired by God, but I also think that it shouldn't be interpreted as promoting rebellion against Him. If you think that Hebrews should be interpreted as promoting rebellion against God, then that should cause you to question whether it was inspired by God, especially when God instructed His people not to listen to anyone who teaching against obeying the Torah.
I'll repost again. Do you see below that the priesthood was changed, and because of that change, there was of necessity also of a change of law? Laws, commandments and priesthood are totally and completely integrated and dependent upon each other. Did you not understand that Christ was from a tribe different than the ministers of the Mosaic Law? The ministering of the Mosaic law was solely given to and reserved to the sons of Aaron being from the tribe of Levi, by the command of God. Therefore, Christ, in being from a completely different tribe, and not a son of Aaron, could not minister to the Mosaic Law (neither could they minister to the new law), but that only Christ could only mister to the new law: the law of liberty - otherwise, God's command would then be violated - that Christ in the flesh was from a tribe different than was Aaron or his sons, there can be no dispute.
[Heb 7:11-14 KJV]
11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need [was there] that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
14 For [it is] evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.
Your post is based solely upon your own conjecture which is not demonstrated in/by chapter and verse. You define your own rules and essentially make up your own gospel so that it conforms it to what you want it to say. I suggest that you seriously consider what a change in law brought about by Christ represents and meditate upon that without trying to change it or cast aspersions upon it.
I am not going to give any dignity to your statements especially that we either shouldn't follow Hebrews or that its words are from a "false prophet" by replying further to your post.
God's righteousness is eternal (Psalms 119:142), therefore all of God's righteous laws are also eternal (Psalms 119:160). I've not based my position solely on my own conjecture, but rather I frequently cited Scripture to show where I have derived my position. I've not made my own rules or my own Gospel, but rather I've cited Matthew 4:15-23 in support of the Gospel that Jesus taught.
Any instructions that God has ever given for how to testify about His eternal righteousness are eternally valid regardless of which covenant someones is under, if any, so Hebrews 7:12 could not be referring to a change of the law in regard to its content, such as with it becoming righteous to commit murder or sinful to help the poor, but rather the context is speaking about a change of the priesthood, which would require a change of the law in regard to its administration. Refusing to address the major problems that you should have with your position does not cause them to go away.