GotQuestions
Funny thing is that copyrights did not begin until around 1790.
Should I believe you or what I read online? Given your lack of proof, I believe GotQuestions.org and wikipedia. Here is an expanded excerpt from their articles...
Many
KJV Only advocates argue that the modern English translations are corrupt due to their being copyrighted, with the King James Version being “pure” because it is not copyrighted. Copyrights, to the KJV Only crowd, “prove” these are man’s words, not God’s. Others dislike the idea of a Bible translation having a copyright as a matter of principle. The purpose of a copyright is to protect one’s property and prevent the making of unwarranted copies. “But the Bible should be available for unlimited use. It is the Word of God, after all!”—so goes the argument. God would not restrict the distribution of His Word.
While it could be that Bible publishers should be more lenient when enforcing their copyrights, having a Bible translation copyrighted is not wrong in and of itself. It is expensive to develop a new translation of the Bible. The translators, scholars, grammarians, proofreaders, etc., all need to be paid. If other companies or individuals took a translation and published it as their own, the original publisher would lose money, and further Bible translation efforts would be hindered. Bible publishers have to make a profit, or they will go out of business.
In regards to the claims of the KJV Only Movement, they are entirely incorrect.
The King James Version was copyrighted when first published. In fact, to this day, the KJV is still under copyright protection in the United Kingdom. The existence of a copyright is meaningless in determining the quality of a translation. And, even if the existence of a copyright mattered, the King James Version is, in fact, copyrighted.
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Copyright protection in Britain dates back to the 1556 Charter of the Worshipful Company of Stationers and Newspaper Makers