The Error of KJV-Onlyism

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Dino246

Dino246

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#881
Jun 30, 2015
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#881
Bible_Highlighter said:
Jesus read from Isaiah, and this was referred to as Scripture.
The Ethiopian eunuch also read from Isaiah.
Now, unless you believe the Ethiopian eunuch stole the original manuscript that had Isaiah from the one Jesus read, you would have to conclude that the eunuch had a copy of Isaiah and not the original. Keep in mind that in Acts 8, it says that what the Ethiopian eunuch had was Scripture. Yet, he no doubt had a copy. So this was a copy of Scripture. So if it was Scripture…. We must then run over to 2 Timothy 3:16 and read and believe what it says there about Scripture. It says ALL (not some). It says ALL Scripture is given by inspiration of God. So this means that even the copies of Scripture are inspired. Just connect the dots.
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You are correct about this particular issue. A true copy is inspired Scripture just as the original is inspired Scripture. The same holds for diligent and honest translations from originals or true copies.
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#882
Jun 30, 2015
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#882
Nehemiah6 said:
Do you see how BIZARRE your ideas are? Copies are copies of the original inspired autographs. Therefore they themselves cannot be "inspired". You do not know what inspiration means in 2 Tim 3:16. It is the Greek word theopneustos, which means God-breathed. And God did not breathe into the translations.
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His ideas on this particular issue are not bizarre at all; they just need a little adjustment.
 
Dino246

Dino246

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#883
Jun 30, 2015
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#883
Bible_Highlighter said:
Jesus read from Isaiah, and this was referred to as Scripture.
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Adding to my earlier post…

The inspiration is on the original only. God did not re-inspire each copyist, translator or publisher as they laboured.

The inspiration remains effective through the processes of copying and translating, so what you or I hold today is still the inspired word of God just as what Timothy held was.

This issue of inspiration gets muddy when people foolishly claim that only one translation in a language can be the inspired word of God, or that a particular translation was re-inspired.
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#887
Jan 13, 2016
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#887
Nehemiah6 said:
Do you see how BIZARRE your ideas are? Copies are copies of the original inspired autographs. Therefore they themselves cannot be "inspired". You do not know what inspiration means in 2 Tim 3:16. It is the Greek word theopneustos, which means God-breathed. And God did not breathe into the translations.
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Why not? Is anything to hard for the Lord? Did Timothy have the originals? Copies can certainly be inspired. We see many examples in the scriptures themselves.
 
J

John146

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#888
Jan 13, 2016
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#888
Blain said:
no I haven't I have heard of people talking about the kjv cult as it is often spoken of and i love to le learn so can you explain or direct me to an actual source?
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People also accused the early believers of being part of a cult.
 
notmyown

notmyown

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#889
May 26, 2016
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#889
Blain said:
I actually have no idea who that is is he simaly to morgan freemon?
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dearest, you may know him best as Darth Vader from the first Star Wars film.

you are in my prayers always. ♥
 
notmyown

notmyown

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#890
May 26, 2016
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#890
i'm just gonna argue no one can get the idea of KJVO from the Bible itself. if one becomes a believer and just reads the Bible, KJVO ain't there. you'd have to hear the propaganda from outside the Scriptures to arrive at that conclusion.

i also find it alarmingly Anglo-centric, as though God doesn't care enough for all the non-English speaking Christians through the ages to give them a so-called "perfect" translation.
 
J

John146

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#891
Jan 13, 2016
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#891
notmyown said:
i'm just gonna argue no one can get the idea of KJVO from the Bible itself. if one becomes a believer and just reads the Bible, KJVO ain't there. you'd have to hear the propaganda from outside the Scriptures to arrive at that conclusion.

i also find it alarmingly Anglo-centric, as though God doesn't care enough for all the non-English speaking Christians through the ages to give them a so-called "perfect" translation.
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How many years went by when only the Jews were given the word of God?
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#892
Jan 13, 2016
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#892
Dino246 said:
The same holds for diligent and honest translations from originals or true copies.
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If this is true, there would be no errors found in the diligent and honest translations. Inspired scripture cannot contain errors. A faithful witness cannot lie, and that's what the KJV has been through the years, a faithful witness.
 
Dino246

Dino246

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#893
Jun 30, 2015
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HealthAndHappiness said:
Ever since I've been a member of this forum it's been more than a little obvious that it's been the modernist liberals who have been those most divisive.
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Really? Which members, exactly, are these ‘modernist liberals’, and on what evidence (in each case) do you make this accusation on their sociopolitical alignment?
 
notmyown

notmyown

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#894
May 26, 2016
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#894
John146 said:
How many years went by when only the Jews were given the word of God?
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brother, you're surely not equating the people God chose to represent Him to the world in the Old Testament with English speakers?
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#895
Jun 30, 2015
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#895
John146 said:
If this is true, there would be no errors found in the diligent and honest translations. Inspired scripture cannot contain errors. A faithful witness cannot lie, and that's what the KJV has been through the years, a faithful witness.
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Yawn. I’m not going to show you the error of your reasoning yet again.
 
Magenta

Magenta

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#897
Jul 3, 2015
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#897
notmyown said:
brother, you're surely not equating the people God chose to represent Him to the world in the Old Testament with English speakers?
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Some say there were no good English Scriptures until the KJV came along.
 
Magenta

Magenta

Senior Member
#898
Jul 3, 2015
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#898
Bible_Highlighter said:
I am not denying Paul was referring to the OT Scriptures. But these were copies Timothy had and not the originals. Even if you do not believe Timothy had any copy of Scripture, you cannot make that case with the Ethiopian eunuch. Jesus had read from Isaiah. Yet, the Ethiopian eunuch also read from Isaiah. They cannot both be the same manuscript which would be the original. They were copies. At least the eunuch would have only had a copy of Isaiah and not the original. Now, if you read the story of the Ethiopian eunuch, it says that what he had was called, “Scripture.“ Now, skip over to 2 Timothy 3:16. It says ALL Scripture is given by inspiration of God. So the copy is given by inspiration of God; Not just the originals only.
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Yes, and as N6 clarified, he was speaking of copies, which came through earlier with
his mentioning how meticulous the Israelis were with copying Scriptural texts.
 
P

presidente

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#899
May 29, 2013
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#899
John146 said:
I'm not following you. Explain further using the Matthew 19 passage. Deuteronomy 22 is a case of rape.
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I posted elsewhere.

The same type of verb forms are used for 'sieze' and 'lie' with in one of the rape cases that is used to describe writing a letter of divorcement. My point is that the verb, translated as a command in the KJV, and even more strongly so in certain other translations, need not be interpreted as a command, but as setting up a case. The verb can be a command. In the case of rape described in Deuteronomy 22, 'lie' is not a command, clearly. In Matthew 19, the Pharisees and the Lord Jesus differ as to whether giving the divorce certificate was a command or something allowed by Moses.

The KJV gives credence to the Pharisee view. Many other translations set the giving of the divorce certificate in Deuteronomy 24 as laying out a case.
 
J

John146

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#900
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notmyown said:
brother, you're surely not equating the people God chose to represent Him to the world in the Old Testament with English speakers?
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Just showing what you stated doesn't have much evidence, but contrary.
 
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