There are five verses in the KJV that contain 'Noe' instead of 'Noah'. In bible translation terms, is this to be considered an 'error'? No, it is not. Why? Because, it does not change the essence of the meaning of the Word of God.
This is why @Nehemiah6 says it "has flaws" but not 'errors' - because, the simple 'typo' kind of copyist or printing "error" does not produce 'error' in the Word of God.
The blatent deliberate egregious errors of the modern versions change the very meaning of scripture.
And - you would rather have that in the swimming pool size than to believe and trust the KJV as the true inerrant Word of God and spend the effort to properly study the places where you do not fully understand its meaning???
Again - something is seriously wrong somewhere...
It is within human nature to want to swim in the pool - that is - to have a large [fleshly] "comfort zone" margin to buffer against the "strictness" of the plain simple truth - and, especially, the Word of God.
You want the swimming pool because you cannot swim in the bottle cap.
The bottle cap does not offer enough [fleshly] "comfort zone" for you.
The modern bible versions give you that "comfort zone" margin.
If you cannot believe and trust that you have the complete Word of God - to read and study with the attitude that it is correct - and that you must carefully-and-prayerfully discern what God is trying to tell you through scripture - instead of deciding for yourself what it is-or-should-be saying - you are in a bad place to be with regard to the significance and importance of properly understanding scripture.
In any case, I suggest that all of you stop wasting hundreds of posts arguing over the wrong thing until you get your definitions straight...
Instead of mud-slinging, how about trying to see what you can agree upon.
This is why @Nehemiah6 says it "has flaws" but not 'errors' - because, the simple 'typo' kind of copyist or printing "error" does not produce 'error' in the Word of God.
The blatent deliberate egregious errors of the modern versions change the very meaning of scripture.
And - you would rather have that in the swimming pool size than to believe and trust the KJV as the true inerrant Word of God and spend the effort to properly study the places where you do not fully understand its meaning???
Again - something is seriously wrong somewhere...
It is within human nature to want to swim in the pool - that is - to have a large [fleshly] "comfort zone" margin to buffer against the "strictness" of the plain simple truth - and, especially, the Word of God.
You want the swimming pool because you cannot swim in the bottle cap.
The bottle cap does not offer enough [fleshly] "comfort zone" for you.
The modern bible versions give you that "comfort zone" margin.
If you cannot believe and trust that you have the complete Word of God - to read and study with the attitude that it is correct - and that you must carefully-and-prayerfully discern what God is trying to tell you through scripture - instead of deciding for yourself what it is-or-should-be saying - you are in a bad place to be with regard to the significance and importance of properly understanding scripture.
In any case, I suggest that all of you stop wasting hundreds of posts arguing over the wrong thing until you get your definitions straight...
Instead of mud-slinging, how about trying to see what you can agree upon.
You might want to check, but I think "Noe" is simply a transliteration from the Hebrew Noah. If I'm not mistaken, modern Greek even pronounces Noah as Noe'.
Why they did not simply use the same English spelling is still a mystery to me , but transliteration was a common practice.
As a teenager, I knew who it was from the context, so there's really no actual mistranslation.