God didn't write the Bible either, men did, but they were inspired by God.God did not translate the Bible into english.
Job 38:7; Isaiah 6:2; Deuteronomy 32:8, and a few others suggest beings that are not human, not God, and not angels. The Hebrew "bene elohim" (sons of God) appears in a few places in Scripture. By the way, the KJV of Deut. 32:8 based on manuscripts that are anachronistic, as the sons of Israel did not exist at the time God "set the bounds of the people" (which took place in Genesis 11). Generally, the KJV obscures the nature of these beings.
do you eat food and drink water?
you seem to be saying that it is sinful to take care of your body.
do you breathe air?
or is that also sin since it is God who is our source of life?
should all the righteous suffocate, to show their piety?
A fallacy of exaggeration. You aren't good at debate.
or if perhaps what he said was untruthful altogether, but the kind of thing you might say to make friends with what you assume are all people of a certain worldly political persuasion.
<---- baby killin pervert! i presume you are anti-flu-shot not because of your faith in God to keep you healthy,
"Asinine derives from the Latin asinus, which means "stupid," but also "like an ass or donkey.""

there's zero evidence that Jesus even once told anybody to go make an appointment with Dr Luke as opposed to believing God for health and healing.
not for one second did Jesus consider the temptation
Jesus did not have a sin nature to give into.
do you suppose the typology here is that Isaiah represents Satan?
2 Kings 20:7
Then Isaiah said, "Prepare a poultice of figs." They did so and applied it to the boil, and he recovered.
That's why He never sinned... He rejected the temptation.
The clause, "tempted as we are" is the core Scripture for this issue.
The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father,
What happened was we were all born in to a world full of sin and darkness and we all eventually started sinning on our own.
I already posted the greek word, it's meaning is tested, not tempted. Also, grammar matters.But the Greek word here can mean either tested or tempted in English.
my position is that "tempted" is innacurate when referencing Christ, because James explains that temptation consists of the sin in our own hearts being aroused - and that God cannot be tempted.
from my perspective the sinlessness and deity of Christ demand that the passage in Hebrews means He was tested in every way we are, yet found faultless, whereas we are found lacking. Jesus could not be "tempted" in the way the scripture describes temptation.
I agree that "tested" aligns better with the sinlessness and deity of Christ, and that the whole ordeal was a demonstration to the devil that Christ is sinless. I agree that God cannot be tempted. I agree with James' explanation of sin....But the Greek word here can mean either tested or tempted in English.
my position is that "tempted" is innacurate when referencing Christ, because James explains that temptation consists of the sin in our own hearts being aroused - and that God cannot be tempted.
from my perspective the sinlessness and deity of Christ demand that the passage in Hebrews means He was tested in every way we are, yet found faultless, whereas we are found lacking. Jesus could not be "tempted" in the way the scripture describes temptation.
I was reading through Ezekiel 28:13-15. Here, of course, it is speaking of Satan. What do you think of this? Does it apply to Adam? Does it apply to Christ? Is it only for created beings?I agree that "tested" aligns better with the sinlessness and deity of Christ, and that the whole ordeal was a demonstration to the devil that Christ is sinless. I agree that God cannot be tempted. I agree with James' explanation of sin....
However, I don't accept it as exhaustive because it doesn't explain Adam's sin. It would require that Adam had sin in his heart before eating the fruit. There is no Scripture supporting that conclusion. God didn't ask Adam if he desired the forbidden fruit, but whether he ate it, and the consequences are declared upon his admission that he ate it.
Further, I struggle to accept that "tested" is the right translation when we consider the words "as we are, yet without sin". If it were directly in regard to any regular human, we would have no trouble interpreting it as "tempted". There seems to be some circular reasoning involved in selecting "tested". We aren't "tested"; we are tempted, so "as we are" strongly indicates significant similarity. Being "tempted" doesn't indicate the degree of likelihood of failure. In Jesus' case, we might quantify it as the smallest possible positive number, but still not 'zero'.
As I (think I) have said previously, this makes perfect sense if Jesus, in His humanity, was actually tempted and actually able to fail the "test". I believe that His "nature" was as that of Adam prior to eating the fruit: innocent of all sin but capable of choosing.
I also don't believe this is a salvific issue, though from some responses I suspect others do.![]()
My 11-year-old stepdaughter can't read cursive at all. Now I know how to communicate with my wife!My grandmother wrote some notes in the margins of her Bible, but I can't read her handwriting... does that count?
The first part appears to be a prophecy to a human ruler, but the second (v. 11-19) seems to be about the spiritual entity behind that ruler... ie. the devil.I was reading through Ezekiel 28:13-15. Here, of course, it is speaking of Satan. What do you think of this? Does it apply to Adam? Does it apply to Christ? Is it only for created beings?
Personally, I'm not settled on the issue. Just trying to get more insight.
Sure. But it employs the language of being perfect...until sin was found in you...Was this the case with Adam? Is there wider application?The first part appears to be a prophecy to a human ruler, but the second (v. 11-19) seems to be about the spiritual entity behind that ruler... ie. the devil.
My grandmother wrote some notes in the margins of her Bible, but I can't read her handwriting... does that count?