Has anyone found secret messages in the bible?
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I respectfully disagree, dear madam. The numbers in the Bible are a part of Scripture and thus, they are a part of 2 Timothy 3:16-17.
All Scripture is given by inspiration of God. This would include the numbers. So Scripture says that they are inspired and thus of divine origin. So seeing this is the case, we would expect to see the signature or clues that they are even further divine by looking and or examining His Word according to the Revelation 13:18 principle.
All Scripture is given by inspiration of God. This would include the numbers. So Scripture says that they are inspired and thus of divine origin. So seeing this is the case, we would expect to see the signature or clues that they are even further divine by looking and or examining His Word according to the Revelation 13:18 principle.
Not the chapter and verse numbers; those were added no earlier than the 16th century. They are not part of the original-language text.
There is no "Revelation 13:18 principle", and as the chapter and verse numbers are not "of divine origin", you have no sound basis on which to assume prophetic or occult meaning in them.
There is no "Revelation 13:18 principle", and as the chapter and verse numbers are not "of divine origin", you have no sound basis on which to assume prophetic or occult meaning in them.
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So which Word of God is it referring to?
Where was the Word of God before Westcott and Hort?
By your strong reactions against the KJB, it was a logical deduction. But I am not claiming to be infallible or Omniscient or anything. So if I was wrong in suggesting that you think it is insane that the Word of God could be preserved in an English translation like the KJV, then you have my deepest apologies. So what is your view in regards to those who think the KJB is the pure Word of God if you do not think it is insane?
King James Bible believers are not without their good reasons for believing it is the perfect Word of God.
I actually find a lot more good reasons for the KJB and more reasons against Textual Criticism.
These are not empty claims on my part, I actually have a PDF write up that goes into detail about it.
But I am not finished with it yet. There are still many other sub articles to finish.
Well, you mockingly said in this post, “…the Word of God", not "the word of the KJV translators.”
Do you care to explain how this statement is not hostile?
The same as it does in Isaiah 40:8, and 1 Peter 1:23-25. Also compare John 17:17 with Psalms 100:5 and Psalms 117:2.
Scrolls of Scripture were written on either vellum (flesh/animal skins) or papyri (i.e., grass). The scribes knew they had to keep making copies to preserve God’s words because the scrolls of the Scriptures would get old and decay and perish. So the flesh of the animal skins and the grass used to write Scripture would eventually pass away. Peter says, “For all flesh is as grass, and all the glory of man as the flower of grass. The grass withereth, and the flower thereof falleth away: But the word of the Lord endureth for ever…” (1 Peter 1:24-25). So even though old copies would die out, new ones would replace them, preserving the words of the Lord forever. In fact, Jesus says, “Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.” (Matthew 24:35).
Where was the Word of God before Westcott and Hort?
By your strong reactions against the KJB, it was a logical deduction. But I am not claiming to be infallible or Omniscient or anything. So if I was wrong in suggesting that you think it is insane that the Word of God could be preserved in an English translation like the KJV, then you have my deepest apologies. So what is your view in regards to those who think the KJB is the pure Word of God if you do not think it is insane?
King James Bible believers are not without their good reasons for believing it is the perfect Word of God.
I actually find a lot more good reasons for the KJB and more reasons against Textual Criticism.
These are not empty claims on my part, I actually have a PDF write up that goes into detail about it.
But I am not finished with it yet. There are still many other sub articles to finish.
Well, you mockingly said in this post, “…the Word of God", not "the word of the KJV translators.”
Do you care to explain how this statement is not hostile?
The same as it does in Isaiah 40:8, and 1 Peter 1:23-25. Also compare John 17:17 with Psalms 100:5 and Psalms 117:2.
Scrolls of Scripture were written on either vellum (flesh/animal skins) or papyri (i.e., grass). The scribes knew they had to keep making copies to preserve God’s words because the scrolls of the Scriptures would get old and decay and perish. So the flesh of the animal skins and the grass used to write Scripture would eventually pass away. Peter says, “For all flesh is as grass, and all the glory of man as the flower of grass. The grass withereth, and the flower thereof falleth away: But the word of the Lord endureth for ever…” (1 Peter 1:24-25). So even though old copies would die out, new ones would replace them, preserving the words of the Lord forever. In fact, Jesus says, “Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.” (Matthew 24:35).
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Well, first, if you know the Bible issue, you should be aware of what I speak of.
But in case you don’t know, I will help to enlighten you, my friend.
Jesus said Heaven and Earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away (Matthew 24:35).
But in Modern Translations, some of our Lord’s words have passed away (or they are missing).
A. Missing words of Jesus:
Removal of the words “You know not what spirit you-all are of.” (Luke 9:55).
The words in Acts of the Apostles 9:5 that say, “it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks” is removed.
A few specific words in Matthew 17:21 and Mark 9:29 are wiped away (Which affects the doctrine that we have to also fast in casting out persistent demons).
The words of Jesus are potentially eliminated by the footnote that casts doubt on Mark 6:9-20 in Modern Translations.
The words of Jesus are potentially erased by the footnote that casts doubt on John 7:53 through John 8:11.
Jesus' words are omitted in Luke 9:56.
B. Modern Versions make Jesus appear to sin:
In Matthew 5:22, Modern Translations remove the words “without a cause” in relation to being angry with your brother.
The King James correctly includes the words “without a cause,”
“But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.” (Matthew 5:22) (KJV).
Why is this important? Because Jesus got angry in Mark 3:5.
“And when he had looked round about on them with anger, being grieved for the hardness of their hearts, he saith unto the man, Stretch forth thine hand. And he stretched it out: and his hand was restored whole as the other.” (Mark 3:5) (KJV).
But if we are to believe the Modern Translations, then Jesus had sinned by getting angry with his fellow brethren or Jews based on Matthew 5:22. For Modern Translations appear to condemn Jesus for just being angry in general as a sin, when in reality, Jesus was specifically referring to being angry without a cause. In John 7:8, the Modern Translations remove the word “yet,” making it appear like Jesus is lying. The King James correctly includes the word “yet,”
“Go ye up unto this feast: I go not up yet unto this feast; for my time is not yet full come.”
(John 7:8) (KJV).
The author of the Living Bible (TLB) says in Zechariah 13:6, “What are these wounds? Oh, these I got when I was in a brawl at my friend's house." (This is blasphemous because it is a prophecy about Jesus Christ).
I remember a Christian once told me about how Jesus lied, and they pointed out this section of the Scriptures to me. I have heard other Christians say that Jesus sinned, as well. This is just crazy talk. Jesus had to be our spotless Lamb to pay the price for our sins. No doubt, they were most likely reading or favoring a Modern Translation that made them think this way.
C. False Doctrines In Modern Bibles:
1. The false demi-god Jesus view (i.e., Jesus did not exist eternally in the past) is wrongfully promoted in certain Modern bibles (AMP, AMPC, LSB, NASB1995, NTE). John 1:18 "the only begotten Son" (KJB) is wrongfully changed to “The only begotten God.” But God is not begotten. God is eternal. In addition, Micah 5:2 in Modern Bibles changes the eternal nature of Christ that says: “from everlasting” to “from ancient times” or “from ancient days” or “distant past.” This, again, is an attack upon the eternal nature of God or Jesus Christ.
2. Modern Bibles falsely teach that Jesus had faith in Hebrews 12:2 (NIV) (CSB) (NET) (ISV) (CEB) (EXB) (MOUNCE) (RSV) (NRSV). Hebrews 11 defines faith as: “Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen.” (Hebrews 11:1). So if we see God face to face, we would no longer have any need for faith in the existence of God, right? It would no longer be the “evidence of things not seen.” According to Scripture: We know Jesus had seen God the Father. Jesus says, “No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” (John 1:18). Jesus says, “Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.” (John 5:19). So Jesus says He sees the Father; Therefore, it would be impossible for Jesus to have faith in God the Father’s existence (like us). In addition, Jesus also said that He came down from Heaven (John 6:38) and that He (the Son of Man) is in Heaven (John 3:13).
3. Certain Modern Bibles in Philippians 2:7 change doctrine by denying the power of Jesus Christ during His Earthly ministry. For instance: Modern bibles falsely say Jesus emptied himself or gave up his divine privileges (See the ESV & the NLT). However, we know from Scripture that while Christ appeared to suppress His Omniscience to be a figurative type of Adam, the Bible also describes how Jesus had divine power of His own during His earthly ministry as well. For example, Jesus said He has “power” to raise the dead to life just as the Father had “power” to raise the dead (John 5:21). Jesus Christ said wherever two or three are gathered in my name, there I am among them (Matthew 18:20). This was said to the people he was around and not to just us today.
4. Certain Modern Translations Leave Room for a Person to Commit Abortion. For example, Luke 1:15 in certain Modern Translations such as the CEV, GNT, ICB, PHILLIPS, MSG, NCV, NLV, and WE all basically say from the time of John the Baptist's birth, he will be filled with the Holy Ghost. This is unlike the KJB that correctly says he will be filled with the Holy Ghost from his mother’s womb. Being filled with the Spirit in the mother’s womb suggests John the Baptist is a living human being inside the mother. Today, some Christians believe in abortion because they don’t think the baby is alive inside the womb (Which is basically the murder of innocent babies). No doubt, Modern bibles like these could potentially lead a person to justify the murder of the innocent.
5. Fornication means sex before marriage. This word “fornication” is removed entirely in popular Modern Translations (such as the NIV, ESV, and NET). The NAS95 mentions fornication four times, while the KJB mentions it 32 times. The point here is that this is an attack on the sin of sex before marriage (See 1 Corinthians 7:2). NAS95 changes it to immoralities. Other versions say “sexual immorality” instead of “fornication” which muddies the waters of meaning here. Sexual Immorality could include other immoral sex acts (bestiality, incest) that do not specifically refer to fornication. Newer Christians today think sex before marriage is okay.
This is just the tip of the iceberg. There are other doctrines removed and attacked. But I have 101 Reasons for the King James Bible being the Pure Word of God that span across distinct categories.
But in case you don’t know, I will help to enlighten you, my friend.
Jesus said Heaven and Earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away (Matthew 24:35).
But in Modern Translations, some of our Lord’s words have passed away (or they are missing).
A. Missing words of Jesus:
Removal of the words “You know not what spirit you-all are of.” (Luke 9:55).
The words in Acts of the Apostles 9:5 that say, “it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks” is removed.
A few specific words in Matthew 17:21 and Mark 9:29 are wiped away (Which affects the doctrine that we have to also fast in casting out persistent demons).
The words of Jesus are potentially eliminated by the footnote that casts doubt on Mark 6:9-20 in Modern Translations.
The words of Jesus are potentially erased by the footnote that casts doubt on John 7:53 through John 8:11.
Jesus' words are omitted in Luke 9:56.
B. Modern Versions make Jesus appear to sin:
In Matthew 5:22, Modern Translations remove the words “without a cause” in relation to being angry with your brother.
The King James correctly includes the words “without a cause,”
“But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.” (Matthew 5:22) (KJV).
Why is this important? Because Jesus got angry in Mark 3:5.
“And when he had looked round about on them with anger, being grieved for the hardness of their hearts, he saith unto the man, Stretch forth thine hand. And he stretched it out: and his hand was restored whole as the other.” (Mark 3:5) (KJV).
But if we are to believe the Modern Translations, then Jesus had sinned by getting angry with his fellow brethren or Jews based on Matthew 5:22. For Modern Translations appear to condemn Jesus for just being angry in general as a sin, when in reality, Jesus was specifically referring to being angry without a cause. In John 7:8, the Modern Translations remove the word “yet,” making it appear like Jesus is lying. The King James correctly includes the word “yet,”
“Go ye up unto this feast: I go not up yet unto this feast; for my time is not yet full come.”
(John 7:8) (KJV).
The author of the Living Bible (TLB) says in Zechariah 13:6, “What are these wounds? Oh, these I got when I was in a brawl at my friend's house." (This is blasphemous because it is a prophecy about Jesus Christ).
I remember a Christian once told me about how Jesus lied, and they pointed out this section of the Scriptures to me. I have heard other Christians say that Jesus sinned, as well. This is just crazy talk. Jesus had to be our spotless Lamb to pay the price for our sins. No doubt, they were most likely reading or favoring a Modern Translation that made them think this way.
C. False Doctrines In Modern Bibles:
1. The false demi-god Jesus view (i.e., Jesus did not exist eternally in the past) is wrongfully promoted in certain Modern bibles (AMP, AMPC, LSB, NASB1995, NTE). John 1:18 "the only begotten Son" (KJB) is wrongfully changed to “The only begotten God.” But God is not begotten. God is eternal. In addition, Micah 5:2 in Modern Bibles changes the eternal nature of Christ that says: “from everlasting” to “from ancient times” or “from ancient days” or “distant past.” This, again, is an attack upon the eternal nature of God or Jesus Christ.
2. Modern Bibles falsely teach that Jesus had faith in Hebrews 12:2 (NIV) (CSB) (NET) (ISV) (CEB) (EXB) (MOUNCE) (RSV) (NRSV). Hebrews 11 defines faith as: “Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen.” (Hebrews 11:1). So if we see God face to face, we would no longer have any need for faith in the existence of God, right? It would no longer be the “evidence of things not seen.” According to Scripture: We know Jesus had seen God the Father. Jesus says, “No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” (John 1:18). Jesus says, “Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.” (John 5:19). So Jesus says He sees the Father; Therefore, it would be impossible for Jesus to have faith in God the Father’s existence (like us). In addition, Jesus also said that He came down from Heaven (John 6:38) and that He (the Son of Man) is in Heaven (John 3:13).
3. Certain Modern Bibles in Philippians 2:7 change doctrine by denying the power of Jesus Christ during His Earthly ministry. For instance: Modern bibles falsely say Jesus emptied himself or gave up his divine privileges (See the ESV & the NLT). However, we know from Scripture that while Christ appeared to suppress His Omniscience to be a figurative type of Adam, the Bible also describes how Jesus had divine power of His own during His earthly ministry as well. For example, Jesus said He has “power” to raise the dead to life just as the Father had “power” to raise the dead (John 5:21). Jesus Christ said wherever two or three are gathered in my name, there I am among them (Matthew 18:20). This was said to the people he was around and not to just us today.
4. Certain Modern Translations Leave Room for a Person to Commit Abortion. For example, Luke 1:15 in certain Modern Translations such as the CEV, GNT, ICB, PHILLIPS, MSG, NCV, NLV, and WE all basically say from the time of John the Baptist's birth, he will be filled with the Holy Ghost. This is unlike the KJB that correctly says he will be filled with the Holy Ghost from his mother’s womb. Being filled with the Spirit in the mother’s womb suggests John the Baptist is a living human being inside the mother. Today, some Christians believe in abortion because they don’t think the baby is alive inside the womb (Which is basically the murder of innocent babies). No doubt, Modern bibles like these could potentially lead a person to justify the murder of the innocent.
5. Fornication means sex before marriage. This word “fornication” is removed entirely in popular Modern Translations (such as the NIV, ESV, and NET). The NAS95 mentions fornication four times, while the KJB mentions it 32 times. The point here is that this is an attack on the sin of sex before marriage (See 1 Corinthians 7:2). NAS95 changes it to immoralities. Other versions say “sexual immorality” instead of “fornication” which muddies the waters of meaning here. Sexual Immorality could include other immoral sex acts (bestiality, incest) that do not specifically refer to fornication. Newer Christians today think sex before marriage is okay.
This is just the tip of the iceberg. There are other doctrines removed and attacked. But I have 101 Reasons for the King James Bible being the Pure Word of God that span across distinct categories.
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I never said it didn't include "secret", but secret doesn't mean occult. Occult means magic that is hidden beyond the understanding of regular people. How does that fit into what we are discussing here? Nothing we are discussing here is beyond understanding, it's clearly in the Bible and it's clearly there because God put it there.
Actually the canon of Scripture is not listed in Scripture. There are different canons or other holy books out there. So then once must decide which canon is the correct one. Do you think that those who chose the canon were moving by the Spirit of God to select what books needed to be in our Bible even thought they are not mentioned as some kind of list in Scripture? So why not the same with chapter and verse numbers? Would not God see the signifance in His people being able to quickly find a place in His Word? For example: When most Christians say John 3:16 to each other, they know instantly what verse that is and they are able to quote it. It’s a very special verse to them. Anyway, we see God can edit His own word in Jeremiah 36:32. Granted, the chapter and verse numbers are not conveying new information. But when we see a pattern repeatedly involving them that goes beyond mere random chance, one has to really think what source it came from.
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Don't be so arrogant to think that you are "enlightening" me about anything. You're merely supporting the assertions you made.
The Living Bible is a paraphrase, and anyone doing serious study knows that. Claims that "modern Bibles" say this or that are not evidence; they are hearsay at best. Quote specific translations (plural) that say what you claim.
Also, one simple question: What makes you think that those words belong there, if the only evidence you have is the KJV? Logically, it is just as legitimate to state that the KJV has extra words.
I suggest you do a little more homework on the meaning of the word behind "begotten" in the original language(s).
No, they do not.
The NLT is a paraphrase. I see no reason to debate its merits in this discussion. There is nothing wrong with the ESV wording. Again, look at the meaning of the key words in the Greek instead of assuming that the KJV is the best translation.
No, we do not know that from Scripture, because Scripture says no such thing.
This is a silly argument. People who seek to live for God don't commit murder, and aren't looking for excuses to do so. People who aren't seeking to live for God don't care what He says anyway.
Um, that is simply invalid. For the word "fornication" to be "removed" from the modern translations, it would had to have been there in the first place.
Overall, it looks like you're another product of narrow-minded fearmongering preachers who spout the same tired accusations and never honestly consider any evidence that challenges their narrative. You aren't the first around here, and you probably won't be the last.
The Living Bible is a paraphrase, and anyone doing serious study knows that. Claims that "modern Bibles" say this or that are not evidence; they are hearsay at best. Quote specific translations (plural) that say what you claim.
Also, one simple question: What makes you think that those words belong there, if the only evidence you have is the KJV? Logically, it is just as legitimate to state that the KJV has extra words.
I suggest you do a little more homework on the meaning of the word behind "begotten" in the original language(s).
No, they do not.
The NLT is a paraphrase. I see no reason to debate its merits in this discussion. There is nothing wrong with the ESV wording. Again, look at the meaning of the key words in the Greek instead of assuming that the KJV is the best translation.
No, we do not know that from Scripture, because Scripture says no such thing.
This is a silly argument. People who seek to live for God don't commit murder, and aren't looking for excuses to do so. People who aren't seeking to live for God don't care what He says anyway.
Um, that is simply invalid. For the word "fornication" to be "removed" from the modern translations, it would had to have been there in the first place.
Overall, it looks like you're another product of narrow-minded fearmongering preachers who spout the same tired accusations and never honestly consider any evidence that challenges their narrative. You aren't the first around here, and you probably won't be the last.