Why do you believe that people have to ignore something?
Also, I need clarity regarding what you wrote with the following. What do you mean here?
You wrote, "There is a bit of irony in the fact that “the Word of the LORD” can say, “Behold, I am the Lord, the God of all flesh; is anything too difficult for Me?” (Jer. 32:26-27) and yet, become flesh (Jn. 1:1–14)."
I didn't intend to target you (per se), but simply pointing out that Jn. 14:28 is probably the most often cited (and missapplied) text against Trinitarianism. And in most instances, it is cited without recognition of all the other little nuances.
When I cited Jer. 32, I was drawing on the fact that John's prologue speaks of the Word becoming flesh, the very thing that Jeremiah says “the Word” is “God of” (“God of all flesh”).
I am not necessarily suggesting that this mystical figure (i.e., “the Word”) is always portrayed in the OT as a person, but there are instances where this does seem to be the case, and it certainly doesn't stop John from drawing upon this theme throughout his Gospel.
Throughout the OT, “the Word of the LORD” is uniquely associated with YHWH. Jeremiah 1:4-9 portrays this figure as a true visible manifestation of God; hence,
‘Now the Word of the Lord came to me saying,
“Before I formed you in the womb I knew you,
And before you were born I consecrated you;
I have appointed you a prophet to the nations.”
Then I said, “Alas, Lord God!
Behold, I do not know how to speak,
Because I am a youth.”
But the Lord said to me,
“Do not say, ‘I am a youth,’
Because everywhere I send you, you shall go,
And all that I command you, you shall speak.
“Do not be afraid of them,
For I am with you to deliver you,” declares the Lord.
Then the Lord stretched out His hand and touched my mouth... .’
That this is a true visionary experience is brought out by v. 9 (“Then the Lord stretched out His hand and touched my mouth”). The Word is referred to as the one who “formed you in the womb,” and is even referred to as YHWH in v. 6. Elsewhere in Jeremiah (18:5–6), the Word is identified as “the Potter,” and in 32:26-27 is referred to as, “the Lord, the God of all flesh.” In another example (1 Samuel 3:7-9, 21), “the Word of the LORD” is said to do the very thing that the prologue of John attributes to Jesus (John 1:18): expositing God to men.
That 1 Samuel 3 is also a visionary experience, is brought out by the words, “And the Lord
appeared again at Shiloh, because
the Lord revealed Himself to Samuel at Shiloh
by the Word of the Lord.” This is precisely what we hear in John 1:18, “No one has seen God at any time; the only-begotten, Himself God, the one who is in the bosom of the Father—that one has made Him known.”
In other instances (namely, Jn. 8) there are additional allusions to this OT divine figure (“the Word”). For instance, Genesis 15:1 states,
“the Word of the LORD came to Abram in a vision” (Genesis 15:1)
Whatever this experience entailed, it certainly seems to be a visionary one, and is likely the subject of Jesus' words in Jn. 8:40, 8:58. Especially the part in Jn. 8:40 where it says,
“But now you are trying to kill me, a man who has told you the truth I heard from God; this Abraham did not do” (John 8:40)
At what point in time would Abraham even had seen Jesus to have the opportunity to do so?
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